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harkovskaia [24]
4 years ago
6

A company is studying the number of monthly absences among its 125 employees. The following probability distribution shows the l

ikelihood that people were absent 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 days last month.
Number of Days Absent Probability
0 0.60
1 0.20
2 0.12
3 0.04
4 0.04
5 0.00
What is the variance of the number of days absent? Select one:
a. 1.1616
b. 1.41
c. 5.00
d. 55.52
Business
1 answer:
Misha Larkins [42]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. 1.1616

Explanation:

For computing the variance, first we have to determine the mean which is shown below:

Mean = Number of Days × Absent Probability

= 0 × 0.60 + 1 × 0.20 + 2 × 0.12 + 3 × 0.04 + 4 × 0.04

= 0 + 0.20 + 0.24 + 0.12 + 0.16

= 0.72

Now the variance equal to

= (Number of Days Absent - Mean) ^2  × Probability

So,

=  (0 - 0.72)^2 × 0.60 +(1 - 0.72)^2  × 0.20 +(2 - 0.72)^2  × 0.12 +(3 - 0.72)^2  × 0.04 + (4 - 0.72)^2  × 0.04

= 1.1616

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Nancy just had a new baby boy and plans to send him to college 19 years from now. She wants to deposit each winter in an educati
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

$1363.14

Explanation:

Please see attachment

7 0
3 years ago
Question:
Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

Part 1:

Book\  value\  per\  share\  of\ the\  preferred=\$25

Book\ value\ per\ share\ of\ the\ common\ stock=\$17.6428

Part 2:

Book\  value\  per\  share\  of\ the\  preferred=\$28

Book\ value\ per\ share\ of\ the\ common\ stock=\$16.7857

Explanation:

Part 1: (the book value per share of the preferred and common stock under No preferred dividends are in arrears)

Book value per share of the preferred :

Book\ value\  per\  share\  of\  the\  preferred=\frac{(Preferred\ Stock+Cumulative\ dividends)}{Number\ of\ shares\ of\ preferred\ stock}

In our case Cumulative dividends=0

Book\  value\  per\  share\  of\ the\  preferred=\frac{\$250000+0}{10000} \\Book\  value\  per\  share\  of\ the\  preferred=\$25

Book value per share of the common stock:Book\ value\ per\ share\ ofthecommonstock=\frac{Stockholder\ equity-Preferred\ Stock-Cumulative\ dividends}{Number\ of\ shares\ of\ preferred\ stock}In our case Cumulative dividends=0

Book\ value\ per\ share\ of\ the\ common\ stock=\frac{\$867500-\$250000-\$0}{35000} \\Book\ value\ per\ share\ of\ the\ common\ stock=\$17.6428

Part 2:

Annual Preferred Dividend=4%*$25*10,000=$10,000

Three years of preferred dividends are in arrears= 3*Annual Preferred Dividend

Three years of preferred dividends are in arrears= 3*$10000=$30,000

Formula for  the book value per share of the preferred is same as above,so we will direct calculate:

In our case Cumulative dividends=$30,000

Book value per share of the preferred :

Book\  value\  per\  share\  of\ the\  preferred=\frac{\$250000+\$30000}{10000} \\Book\  value\  per\  share\  of\ the\  preferred=\$28

Book value per share of the common stock:

Formula for  the book value per share of the common stock is same as above,so we will direct calculate:

Book\ value\ per\ share\ of\ the\ common\ stock=\frac{\$867500-\$250000-\$30000}{35000} \\Book\ value\ per\ share\ of\ the\ common\ stock=\$16.7857

4 0
3 years ago
"Lizard National Bank purchases a three-year interest rate cap for a fee of 2 percent of notional principal valued at $50 millio
Bingel [31]

Answer: $500,000

Explanation:

An Interest Rate Cap is a Derivative Financial Instrument that works by paying the buyer for every year that the interest rate ceiling is exceeded.

Using the scenario above this is how it's works,

There is an Interest Rate Ceiling of 11%.

Any year that index which is this case is the London Interbank Official Rate (LIBOR) exceeds the 11%, the seller will pay the buyer the difference between the LIBOR and the Interest Rate Ceiling.

The Notional Principal is the amount on which the interest is based.

That means that in Year 1 with a LIBOR of 9 percent, the seller does not pay.

Second year LIBOR is 12 percent, the seller will pay 1% (12% - 11%)

Third year LIBOR is 13 percent, the seller will pay 2% (13% - 11%)

Lizard National Bank had to pay 2% of the notional Principal as a fee.

The amount that Lizard Receives from the seller is therefore,

= Total Received - Fees

= (1% + 2% - 2%) * 50,000,000

= 1% * 50,000,000

= $500,000

The total payments received by Lizard, including the initial fee, are $500,000.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the primary characteristic that differentials a zero based budget from a conventional budget. A. A zero based budget doe
Oksana_A [137]

Answer:

B. The zero based budget requires managers to re-justify every planned expenditure every year.

Explanation:

A zero based budget is one that does not take into account historical data when it is considering the present year budget. Each departmental requirement is re-evaluated and a new amount is assigned as budget for the year.

However conventional budgets carryover the previous year's expenses as a base data point. This results in similar budgeting across years.

So the main difference between the two is that zero based budget requires managers to re-justify every planned expenditure every year.

8 0
3 years ago
As the labor market became more competitive in the later 19th century, employers began to offer all the following except
iren2701 [21]
Option A should be the best answer for above question. All other choices listed are already offered by companies nowadays. Pensions are only given companies as payment to their contributions to their previous company.<span />
3 0
3 years ago
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