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Vladimir79 [104]
3 years ago
15

Your trip to was great, but it unfortunately ran a bit over budget. However, you just received an offer in the mail to transfer

your $10 000 balance from your current credit card, which charges an annual rate of 19.8%, to a new credit card charging a rate of 6.2%. How much faster could you pay the loan off by making your planned monthly payments of $200 with the new card? What if there was a 2% fee charged on any balances transferred?
Business
1 answer:
serg [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

with the new rate we will pay in 58 months.

if there is 2% commision charge: 59.35 = 60 months

Explanation:

Currently we owe 10,000

This will be transfer to a new credit card with a rate of 6.2%

We are going to do monthly payment of 200 dollars each month

and we need to know the time it will take to pay the loan:

We use the formula for ordinary annuity and solve for time:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C  $200.00

time n

rate 0.005166667 (6.2% rate divide into 12 months)

PV $10,000.0000

200 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0051667)^{-n} }{0.0051667} = 10000\\

We arrenge the formula and solve as muhc as we can:

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 1-\frac{10000\times0.0051667}{200}

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 0.74166667

Now, we use logarithmics properties to solve for time:

-n= \frac{log0.741667}{log(1+0.0051667)

-57.99227477 = 58 months

part B

If there is a charge of 2% then Principal = 10,000 x 102% = 10,200

we use that in the formula and solve:

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 1-\frac{10200\times0.0051667}{200}

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}=0.73650000

-n= \frac{log0.7365}{log(1+0.0051667)

-59.34880001 = 59.35 months

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a) 175,437.77

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\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}Year&Beg Principal&Interest&Installment&Ending\\1&175437.77&15789.4&-24500&166727.17\\2&166727.17&15005.45&-24500&157232.62\\3&157232.62&14150.94&-24500&146883.56\\4&146883.56&13219.52&-24500&135603.08\\5&135603.08&12204.28&-24500&123307.36\\6&123307.36&11097.66&-24500&109905.02\\7&109905.02&9891.45&-24500&95296.47\\8&95296.47&8576.68&-24500&79373.15\\9&79373.15&7143.58&-24500&62016.73\\10&62016.73&5581.51&-24500&43098.24\\\end{array}\right]

\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}11&43098.24&3878.84&-24500&22477.08\\12&22477.08&2022.94&-24500&0.02\\\end{array}\right]

(I split into two arrays as I couldn't put  the entire information into one)

c) because of the time value of money the principal generates interest over time making the installment pay up both concept principal and interest.

d) they decrease as the principal decreases over time as the lease payment exceeds the interest accrued over the year.

Explanation:

a) it will record at the present value of the lease payment annuity

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 24,500

time 12

rate 0.09

24500 \times \frac{1-(1+0.09)^{-12} }{0.09} = PV\\

PV $175,437.7693

b)

we build the table starting withthe beginning lease value

calcualte the interest accrued over the year and subtract the lease payment

this makes a new balance of the loan principal which start the process again until it is fully paid.

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