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Lana71 [14]
3 years ago
10

Which part of this passage contain a biblical allusion in beowulf

Social Studies
1 answer:
MrMuchimi3 years ago
7 0
Beowulf is the prince of the Goths (people of southern Sweden). The action of the poem is located in the coastal regions of the North Sea, in particular the south of Sweden, Denmark and Friesland (lagoon belt full of islands of North-Holland and the North-West Germany up to the Danish border.). These lands in the fifth century were occupied by various Germanic peoples still pagan, organized in small kingdoms, nothing but vast union of tribes where free men in the assemblies deliberating on common interests and elected leaders. Obviously the poem Beowulf is a work of poetic invention, but also tells what actually took place, as the incursion of Hygelac, king of the Goths against Friesland, which occurred around 516; other episodes and characters are reflected in historical sources, particularly in Gesta Danorum duct Danish Saxo Grammaticus.From this base the historical Germanic peoples aside on the shores of the North Sea developed, through the interpretation of the collective memory and of primitive epic songs, a heritage of heroic legends, expression of cultural identity. The Angles and Saxons, closely linked to the level dynastic and personal with the families of Sweden, ferried this oral tradition in England, when in successive waves invaded during the fifth and sixth centuries.The Roman legions, finally retiring from Britain in 406, leaving a country Romanized superficially (Latin was never spoken by the natives), but already Christianized, and Christianity for those provincial, Romanized or not, was one with the civilization.The Anglo-Saxon England, which was formed after repeated invasions, gravitated on the North Sea and Scandinavia, and was costituta by small kingdoms of Germanic type. The most important kingdoms were seven, so we talk about this period of English history (450-800) as dell'Eptarchia Anglo-Saxon. In this political and social elements of the Roman Christian they infiltrated pretty quickly, even for the intervention of scholars and tenacious evangelizers, reaching the full conversion of the island in the early seventh century.<span>The poet of Beowulf is most likely a monaco, since then, only the clergy knew writing; his style, the continued use of a symbolic language and references to sacred texts and the Christian ethical values ​​confirm his ecclesiastical training.</span>
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user100 [1]

Answer:

Explanation:

1. There are few theories on why the books of Maccabees are not part of Jewish scriptures.

The first one is the date; it is believed that the Council of Jamnia only took books that existed for a long time and were unofficially considered canonical when canonizing Hebrew Bible. The events in the old testament go from the Creation to the book of Esther, happening during the rebuilding of the Temple. For them, The Maccabean Revolt was the recent event, happening after these mentioned ones.

The more probable reason, however, lies in the separation of Judaism on two fractures – <em>the Pharisees</em> and<em> theSadducees</em>. While Pharisees lean towards ideas of oral law and tradition, Sadducees reject them and follow the written Torah as the only canon. The Maccabees are believed to be descendant from Pharisees, and quite possibly excluded from canonization by a council of Jamnia because of this reason.

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2. Because of the evidence presented above, the answer is - Yes, it is true that the first and second Maccabee books were written as part the Jewish history.

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