Answer: False
Explanation:
The VOLUME CONSOLIDATION Stage is where a company attempts to reduce the number of suppliers that it has and consolidates the volume of sales it does through them.
This strategy helps in having a better relationship with suppliers as well as earning a claim on their business which would go a long way in price negotiation.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "E": anchoring and adjustment heuristic.
Explanation:
Anchoring-and-Adjustment heuristics refers to estimations made by individuals according to certain information that come to their minds that are adjusted until an acceptable level of accuracy is reached. The latter is the cause of this practice to be inefficient because it is based on finding one optimal level of accuracy only without looking for others that could provide more proper results.
Answer:
Income Statement Dec. 31, 20Y6
<u> Glacier Travel Service </u>
Total revenue $900,000
- Wages expense ($425,000)
- Rent expense ($180,000)
- Utilities expense ($75,000)
- Supplies expense ($38,000
)
<u>- Miscellaneous expense ($37,000)
</u>
EBIT $145,000
<u>- Taxes ($30,000)</u>
Net profit $115,000
Answer:
When the bond is sale at premium, it means the market rate is lower than coupon rate. So investor purchase the bond a higher price until the bond yield equal the market rate
If sold at discount, the market rate is higher than coupon rate. This means it's sold below face value to increase the bond yield to market rate.
YTM if market price is 887 = 10.7366190%
YTM if market price is 1,134.2= 7.1764596%
Explanation:
For the YTM we can calculate an estimated using the following formula:
Where:
C= coupon payment 1,000 x 9% = 90
F= face value of the bonds = 1000
P= market price = 887
n= years to maturity = 10
YTM = 10.7366190%
C= 90
F= 1000
P= 1134.2
n= 10
YTM = 7.1764596%
A more precise answer can be achieve using excle or a financial calculator.
Answer:
D. 25.80 percent
Explanation:
The formula to compute the effective annual rate of the loan is shown below:
= (1 + annual interest rate ÷ periods)^ number of period - 1
= (1 + 23% ÷ 52)^52 - 1
= (1 + 00442)^52 - 1
= 1.00442^52 - 1
= 1.2579618615 - 1
= 25.80%
There are 52 weeks in a year and we considered the same in the above calculation
