Tricky one! Since we are not given any lengths I will use my intuition.
4*4/2 = 8
5*5=25
(25-8)/25 = 17/25 = 68%
Am I right? Is my intuition correct/ please tell me so thanks!
Answer:
Albert is 24. Albert's father is 48
Step-by-step explanation:
This should be the correct answer.
Answer:
77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
The true proportion of defects is 0.15
This means that
Sample of 6:
This means that
What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?
In which
77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
hello!~
i know exactly what your talking about! i just took the test on ed and if you also are or just looking for the answer the answers are..
the second one, the third one, and the fifth one!
have a nice day everyone!!~