Answer:
The correct answer is ending inventory and cost of goods sold
Explanation:
Cost of goods available for sale is defined as the maximum amount of the inventory or the goods which the company could possibly sell during the fiscal or accounting period.
The cost of goods which are available for sale need to be allocated among the cost of goods sold and the ending inventory at the end of the year, where the cost of goods equals to the cost of goods available for sale subtract the ending inventory.
Answer:
d.the company is precisely breaking even.
Explanation:
Margin of safety is referred to current sales - Break even sales ratio to current sales as a percentage.
Basically it is quoted as follows:

Therefore, when the current sales = Break even sales then only the company will have margin of safety = 0
Thus, at 0 margin of safety the company basically is at no profit no loss situation, that is break even.
Answer:
165 / 130
165 /25
divide and get your answer
Answer:
Option D) 1,200 shares held at a cost basis of $37.50 per share
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Number of shares of ABC stocks purchased by the customer = 1,000
Price per share of ABC stock = $44
Commission paid = $1.00 per share
Stock dividend declared = 20%
Now,
The Payment of a stock dividend will increase the number of shares held by the investor
also,
each share is theoretically worth less after the stock dividend is paid.
Therefore,
The number of shares customer will have = Shares purchased × (1 + Dividend declared)
= 1000 × ( 1 + 0.20)
= 1200 shares
Also,
Cost basis for the share = Selling price + Commission
= $44 + $1
= $45
Thus,
The adjusted cost basis = $45 ÷ 1.20
= $37.50 per share
Hence,
Option D) 1,200 shares held at a cost basis of $37.50 per share
Answer:
Option D is the correct answer,$ 88,338.48
Explanation:
The liability reported in the balance sheet can be computed by using the pv formula in excel which is stated thus:
=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)
rate is the incremental borrowing rate of 11% per year
nper is the number of payments required to settle the obligation which is 10
pmt is the amount of yearly payment in order to fully settle the debt owed which is $15,000 per year
fv is the future worth of total payments which is not unknown,hence taken as zero
=-pv(11%,10,15000,0)=$ 88,338.48
The correct answer is $ 88,338.48