Answer:
The right approach is Option C (global minimum variance portfolio).
Explanation:
- A completely-invested portfolio with either a low uncertainty factor seems to be the GMV portfolio. This same GMV portfolio corresponds to or is situated mostly on the left end including its FI-efficient frontier.
- Although aside from either the full-investment requirement, no restrictions are enforced, the GMV portfolio deals for analytical portrayal.
The latter options offered are not relevant to something like the scenario presented. So that is indeed the correct solution.
Answer:
7.76%
Explanation:
In this question, we use the PMT formula which is shown in the spreadsheet.
The NPER represents the time period.
Given that,
Present value = $969
Future value = $1,000
Rate of interest = 8.1%
NPER = 17 years
The formula is shown below:
= PMT(Rate;NPER;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this, The PMT would be $77.58
The coupon rate is shown below:
= (Coupon payment ÷ par value) × 100
= ($77.58 ÷ $1,000) × 100
= 7.76%
Answer:
A. Will be the nine month period between August 15 and May 15; any time period longer than this will be long run for her.
Answer:
and Leah is saving her account APR of
Answer:
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Marginal principle is the principle which is referred to an increase in the activity level when the marginal advantage exceeds or more than the marginal cost.
So, the marginal principle of retained earnings would be when it will provide the higher rate of return than the shareholders who could achieve after paying taxes on the dividends.
