Answer:
It is more profitable to sell te products as-is.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Sell as-is:
Selling price= $31
Continue processing:
Selling price= $35
Unitary incremental cost= $8
Units= 6,100
<u>The firsts $5,200 is a sunk cost, this means that the cost will remain the same in both options. It is irrelevant to the decision-making process.</u>
Sell as-is:
Effect on income= 6,100*31= $189,100
Continue processing:
Effect on income= 6,100*(35-8)= $164,700
It is more profitable to sell te products as-is.
Answer:
$234.87
Explanation:
Pinky's new balance will be the opening balance plus additional. Deposits minus withdrawals. The new balance will be the starting balance plus cash-in minus the cash-out.
Starting balance =$137.66
Cash-in: $146.24
Cash-out : check $23.62 + (AT) of $25.41 =$49.03
New balance = $137.66 + $146.24 - $49.03
=$283.9- 49.03
=$234.8
Since it’s a credit card you must subtract 330.19-50.00 = 280.19 then with the fine you add 280.19+4.20= 284.39. So the new balance is $284.39
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
The terms of 2/10, net 30 implies that the firm is entitled to receive a 2 percent discount if it makes payment within 10 days for the goods it bought on term but the seller expects to pay full amount of the amount due in 30 days if it fails to pay within 10 days.
However, since there will be no more discount after the discount period, the cost of trade credit will continue to fall longer the payment is extended. For this question this can be demonstrated using the formula for calculating the cost of trade discount as follows:
Cost of trade discount = {[1 + (discount rate / (1 - discount rate))]^(365/days after discount)} - 1 ................... (1)
We can now applying equation (1) as follows:
<u>For payment in 40 days </u>
Cost of trade credit (payment in 40 days)= {[1 + (0.02 / (1 - 0.02))]^(365/40)} - 1 = 0.202436246672765, or 20%
<u>For payment in 30 days </u>
Cost of trade credit (payment in 30 days) = {[1 + (0.02 / (1 - 0.02))]^(365/30)} - 1 = 0.278643315029666, or 28%
<u></u>
<u>Conclusion</u>
Since the 20% calculated cost of trade credit for payment in 40 days is lower than 28% calculated cost of trade credit for payment in 30 days, the <u>correct option is A. True</u>. That is, the calculated cost of trade credit for a firm that buys on terms of 2/10, net 30, is lower (other things held constant) if the firm plans to pay in 40 days than in 30 days.
Answer: 1. High Interest
2. Low Government Debt
3. Political Stability
Explanation:
Foreign Investors are Investors and investors always like to invest where there are prospects of growth and profit.
High Interest Rates give them the opportunity to invest their money in a currency that will give them a great return because a country where there are high interest rates imparts this on its currency which causes it to rise in value thereby giving currency holders a capital gain.
Another factor is Government Debt. A country with high Government debt will typically be unable to raise funds through the bond market easily. This shortage of funds can lead to inflation which devalues currency causing foreign currency investors to flee.
Finally there is the Political Factor (other factors exist). A stable country politically stands a better chance of maintaining a higher value currency that one with lower political stability. This is because political Stability attracts investors and as more investments come into a country, this reflects in its currency by making it stronger which will attract foreign currency investors.
