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CaHeK987 [17]
3 years ago
13

A collection of paired data consists of the number of years that students have studied Spanish and their scores on a Spanish lan

guage proficiency test. A computer program was used to obtain the least squares linear regression line and the computer output is shown below. Along with the paired sample data, the program was also given an x value of 2 (years of study) to be used for predicting test score. What percentage of the total variation in test scores can be explained by the linear relationship between years of study and test scorch? Are both of coefficients of regression statistically significant?

Mathematics
1 answer:
babunello [35]3 years ago
8 0

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The percentage is  83%

Step-by-step explanation:

Generally R-Sq is known as the coefficient of  determination and from the question the value is  83% and this R-Sq defines  the total variation in test scores can be explained by the linear relationship between years of study and test scores

So  83 % of the total variation in test scores is unexplained by the linear relationship between years of study and test scores

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Step-by-step explanation:

We have these following probabilities:

A 10% probability that a person has the flu.

A 90% probability that a person does not have the flu, just a cold.

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If a person just has a cold, a 90% probability of having a runny nose.

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In this problem, we have that:

What is the probability that a person has the flu, given that she has a runny nose?

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P(A/B) is the probability that a person has a runny nose, given that she has the flu. So P(A/B) = 0.99.

P(A) is the probability that a person has a runny nose. It is 0.99 of 0.1 and 0.90 of 0.90. So

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Lunch break: In a recent survey of 655 working Americans ages 25-34, the average weekly amount spent on lunch was $43.5
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Using the Empirical Rule, it is found that:

  • a) Approximately 99.7% of the amounts are between $35.26 and $51.88.
  • b) Approximately 95% of the amounts are between $38.03 and $49.11.
  • c) Approximately 68% of the amounts fall between $40.73 and $46.27.

------------

The Empirical Rule states that, in a <em>bell-shaped </em>distribution:

  • Approximately 68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
  • Approximately 95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviations of the mean.
  • Approximately 99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

-----------

Item a:

43.5 - 3(2.77) = 35.26

43.5 + 3(2.77) = 51.88

Within <em>3 standard deviations of the mean</em>, thus, approximately 99.7%.

-----------

Item b:

43.5 - 2(2.77) = 38.03

43.5 + 2(2.77) = 49.11

Within 2<em> standard deviations of the mean</em>, thus, approximately 95%.

-----------

Item c:

  • 68% is within 1 standard deviation of the mean, so:

43.5 - 2.77 = 40.73

43.5 + 2.77 = 46.27

Approximately 68% of the amounts fall between $40.73 and $46.27.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/15967965

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