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gizmo_the_mogwai [7]
3 years ago
8

Javier and Anita Sanchez purchased a home on January 1, 2019, for $600,000 by paying $200,000 down and borrowing the remaining $

400,000 with a 7 percent loan secured by the home. The loan requires interest-only payments for the first five years. The Sanchezes would itemize deductions even if they did not have any deductible interest. The Sanchezes’ marginal tax rate is 32 percent.
Assuming the interest expense is their only itemized deduction for the year and that Javier and Anita file a joint return, have great eyesight, and are under 60 years of age, what is the after-tax cost of their 2019 interest expense?
Business
1 answer:
mel-nik [20]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The after-tax cost of their 2019 interest expense is $19,040

Explanation:

In order to calculate the after-tax cost of their 2019 interest expense we would have to calculate the following formula:

after-tax cost of their 2019 interest expense=Interest before tax expense-tax

Interest before tax expense=$400,000*7%

Interest before tax expense=$28,000

tax=$28,000*32%

tax=$8,960

after-tax cost of their 2019 interest expense=$28,000-$8,960

after-tax cost of their 2019 interest expense=$19,040

The after-tax cost of their 2019 interest expense is $19,040

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Network externality is the correct answer.

Explanation:

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3 years ago
The primary purpose of managerial accounting is to prepare financial statements in accordance with a reporting framework (e.g. G
Contact [7]

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

There is no specific rule for managerial accounting like GAAP. GAAP is the accounting principles set for financial accounting and not managerial accounting. The main and primary purpose of managerial accounting is to help the managers of an organization to analyze the exact cost that is incurred in the production of sale-able goods and services. This accounting is done completely as per the convenience and discretion of the managers of a company and not by any specified rules and norms.

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2 years ago
In the summer of 2002, the euro was valued at slightly less than US$1. By 2008, it had risen to an all-time high of $1.60, but i
Kisachek [45]

The answer is foreign currency fluctuations.

Foreign currency fluctuations are basically the change in the values of currencies based on the demand of that currency.

In other words, the more the number of investors invests in the stocks regulated by the stock market to buy exports of any country, the more will be the value of the currency of that particular country and vice versa.

Foreign currency fluctuation occurs for all floating currencies all over the world.

Since in the given case, the value of the euro changes from US$1 to US$1.60 from 2002 to 2008 respectively.

Hence, this change in value is called Foreign currency fluctuations.

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8 0
1 year ago
Prices of products are often higher in a foreign country than the home country due to transportation charges, taxes, tariffs, an
Genrish500 [490]

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Option E Price Escalation

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7 0
3 years ago
Peter operates a dental office in his home. The office occupies 250 square feet of his residence, which is a total of 1,500 squa
Alex777 [14]

Answer:

$3,000

Explanation:

Per IRS form 8829, allocation of total expense to home office can be arrived by dividing the total usable area of home by the work area to get the percentage of expenses allocable to home office.

So, 250 square feet / 1500 square feet = 16.6666666%

Total expenses incurred;

Rent $12,000

Utilities 4,800

Maintenance 1,200

—————

Total $18,000x16.6666666%=$3,000

or simply, $18,000 x 250/1500 = $3,000 (to be exact in decimal points)

7 0
3 years ago
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