Answer:
55,000 shares
Explanation:
Given that
60000 shares were originally given
5000 were subsequently reacquired
Thus. Net number of shares issued
= number of shares originally issued - number subsequently reacquired
= 60000 - 5000
= 55,000
Number of outstanding shares therefore is 55,000.
NOTE that, outstanding shares refer to the number of shares that has been issued, purchase or authorized by investors, that is, the number of shares currently held by all is shareholders.
It could or it could not, it depends entirely on what they change in their thinking.
Usually no.
Answer: The correct answer is "B".
"B. Investing in real assets" is<u> NOT</u> typically considered a function of financial intermediaries.
Explanation: A financial intermediary is an institution specialized in mediation between economic units that save or invest their funds, and units that wish to borrow funds.
Financial intermediaries are dedicated to investing in <u>financial assets.</u>
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Since in the question it is mentioned that the product recall is probable and predicted that the cost to the company is $2.8 million so this represent the contingent liability as it is probable & estimated
So the same should be disclosed and reported
Hence, the answer should be yes
The same is to considered relevant
Individuals differ in risk aversion because of differences in income or wealth.
- Risk aversion is the propensity of people to choose outcomes with low uncertainty over those with high uncertainty, even when the average outcome of the latter is equal to or higher in monetary worth than the more definite event. This tendency is shown in both economics and finance.
- Risk aversion is the tendency to avoid danger. A risk-averse investor is one who prioritizes money preservation over the potential for a higher-than-average return. Price volatility and investment risk are the same.
- If someone would rather take the risk and maybe receive nothing than accept a definite payment (certainty equivalent) of less than $50 (for instance, $40), they are considered to be risk averse. If they have no preference between the wager and a specific $50 payoff, they are risk neutral.
Thus the correct answer is d.
Refer here to learn more about risk aversion: brainly.com/question/8394406
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