The future value of a 500 annuity payment over wight years if interest rates are 14 percent is $6,616.38.
The value of an asset at a future date is its future value. It is the present value multiplied by the accumulation function, and it estimates the nominal future sum of money that a certain amount of money is "worth" at a given point in the future under the assumption of a specific interest rate, or rate of return. The value is unadjusted for inflation or any other future-related variables that may impact the real value of money. Calculations of the time worth of money use this.
The value of money changes over time; for example, $100 now is worth less than $100 in five years. This is because $100 invested today in a stock, a bond, or any other investment will grow or decrease depending on the rate of return. Additionally, due to inflation (an increase in the purchasing price), if $100 is used to acquire an item today, it's probable that $100 won't be enough to do so in five years.
Learn more about future value here:
brainly.com/question/14860893
#SPJ4
The answer to the statement is yes. It is because laws are important to promote fairness and peace. Laws are established to get things done in order and in different places and environment, there are different laws to be followed in which the statement above is related to it.
Answer:
C. leftward shift of the demand curve.
Explanation:
A normal good is a good whose demand increases when income increases and falls when income falls.
The demand curve is represented as downward sloping curve. It slopes downward because the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded and the lower the price, the higher the quanirty demanded.
A fall in demand is represented by a leftward shift of the demand curve. A rise in demand is represented by a rightward shift of the demand curve.
Factors that leads to a leftward shift of the demand curve:
1. Decrease in income
2. Change in taste - if consumers prefer other products
3. Season
4. Fall in price of substitutes
I hope my answer helps you
We would expect that the rebuilding at the end of World War II in many European countries increased aggregate demand for capital goods in <u>a. Both the US and Europe.</u>
<h3>What is aggregate demand?</h3>
Aggregate demand refers to the total demand for goods and services within an economy.
Because of the Marshall Plan initiated by the United States for rebuilding Europe after the Second World War, aggregate demand increased in both the United States and Europe.
<h3>Answer Options:</h3>
a. Both the US and Europe
b. The US, but not Europe
c. Europe, but not the US
d. Neither the US nor Europe
Thus, the rebuilding at the end of World War II in many European countries increased aggregate demand for capital goods in <u>a. Both the US and Europe.</u>
Learn more about aggregate demand at brainly.com/question/1490249
Answer:
9%
Explanation:
WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.
According to WACC formula
WACC = ( Cost of common stock x Weightage of common stock ) + ( Cost of preferred stock x Weightage of preferred stock ) + ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )
As WACC is calculated using Market values.
Company Value = 100%
Value of Debt = 28%
Value of Debt = 100% - 28% = 72%
WACC = ( 10.54% x 72% ) + ( 5.27% x 28% )
WACC = 7.59% + 1.48% = 9.07% = 9% (rounded off)
