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Law Incorporation [45]
3 years ago
11

What is the equivalent fraction for 5/6 3/8

Mathematics
1 answer:
Serga [27]3 years ago
3 0
5/6 is equal to 10/12 and 3/8 is equivalent to 6/16
You might be interested in
Can someone help me with this?
Margarita [4]

\large \text{Hello keep learning!}

As we know that one million is 1,000,000.

So we can write it as:-

➢ 1×10⁶

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A company makes 120 bags.
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

7/15

Step-by-step explanation:

You have 120 bags. 64 of them in total do not contain buttons.

120 - 64 = 56

You have 56 bags with buttons. The simple answer is,

56/120

You can simplify this down to 7/15

If you're looking for percent, the answer is 46.67%

5 0
3 years ago
What is the percent change of $15.60 to $11.70?
Rashid [163]

Answer:

percentage change=25% .

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : $15.60 to $11.70    .

To find:  What is the percent change .

Solution: We have given that   $15.60 to $11.70  .

Change = final value - initial value .

Change   = $15.60 - $11.70  

                   =$3.9

percentage change = \frac{change}{original value}*100

                                =   \frac{3.9}{15.60}*100

                                =   \frac{390}{1560}*100.

On dividing both number by 3

percentage change=\frac{130}{520}*100.

percentage change=\frac{1}{4}*100.

percentage change=25% .

Therefore, percentage change=25% .

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Genuinely confused rn
frosja888 [35]

Using it's concept, it is found that the probability that he winds up wearing the white shirt and tan pants is of \frac{1}{8}.

<h3>What is a probability?</h3>

A probability is given by the <u>number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes</u>.

In this problem:

  • For the shirt, there is 4 outcomes, hence the probability of the white shirt is 1/4.
  • For the pair of pants, there are 2 outcomes, blue or tan, hence the probability of tan pants is 1/2.

Since the shirt and the pants are independent, the probability is given by:

p = \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{8}.

More can be learned about probabilities at brainly.com/question/14398287

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
I need help please.
enot [183]

Answer:

The answer is D. 2

Step-by-step explanation:

exponential form

exponents equal

move constant to the right

subtract the number

divide both sides by 2

6 0
3 years ago
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