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Nady [450]
4 years ago
13

Peking Palace Company reported the following: Standard quantity per unit 3 lbs. Standard price per pound $2.75 Actual pounds use

d 15,000 lbs. Actual price per pound $2.90 Number of units produced 5,070 What is the direct materials quantity variance?
Business
1 answer:
SCORPION-xisa [38]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$577.5 favorable

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Standard quantity per unit 3 lbs

Standard price per pound = $2.75

Actual pounds used = 15,000 lbs

Actual price per pound = $2.90

Number of units produced = 5,070

Now,

The direct materials quantity variance is given as;

= | ( Actual quantity - Standard quantity ) | × Standard price

= ( 15,000 lbs - {Standard quantity per unit × units produced}) × $2.75

=  ( 15,000 lbs - { 3 × 5,070}) × $2.75

= | ( 15,000 lbs - 15,210 ) | × $2.75

= $577.5

Since,

Standard quantity is higher than the actual quantity

thus,

$577.5 favorable

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Samson Company reported total manufacturing costs of $320,000, manufacturing overhead totaling $52,000, and direct materials use
Artemon [7]

Answer:

$204,000

Explanation:

Given that

Total manufacturing costs = $320,000

Manufacturing overhead = $52,000

Direct materials = $64,000

The computation of direct labor cost is shown below:-

Direct labor cost = Total manufacturing costs + Manufacturing overhead + direct materials

= $320,000 - $52,000 - $64,000

= $204,000

Therefore for computing the direct labor cost we simply applied the above formula.

3 0
3 years ago
During 2020, Lincoln Company hires seven individuals who are certified to be members of a qualifying targeted group. Each employ
Montano1993 [528]

Answer:

$16,800

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what Lincoln Company's work opportunity credit is

Work opportunity credit= $6,000 * .40 *7

Work opportunity credit = $16,800

Therefore Lincoln Company's work opportunity credit is $16,800

7 0
3 years ago
alderwood company has provided the following information prior to any year-end bad debt adjustment: cash sales, $455,000 credit
nordsb [41]

If  sales discounts, $57,000 allowance for doubtful accounts credit balance, $3,800 alderwood prepares an aging of accounts receivable and the result shows that 5% of accounts receivable is estimated to be uncollectible. The bad debt expense is:$13,450.

<h3>How to determine the Bad debt expenses ?</h3>

First step is find the Required Balance using this formula

Required Balance =Accounts Receivables × Percentage of Uncollectible

Let plug in the formula

Required Balance =$345,000 × 5%

Required Balance =$17,250

Now let find the bad debt expenses using this formula

Bad debt expenses = Required Balance - Existing Credit Balance

Let plug in the formula

Bad debt expenses = $17,250 - $3,800

Bad debt expenses = $13,450

Therefore we can conclude that the Bad debt expenses  is the amount of $13,450.

Learn more about Bad debt expenses here: brainly.com/question/24871617

#SPJ1

​

6 0
1 year ago
A multimillion-dollar u.s. project to construct a suspension bridge is in progress. true structures inc. in canada shares both p
umka21 [38]

Answer: Joint Venture

A Joint Venture is a business entity that is created when two or more corporations pool in their resources for a specific project.  

The corporations that are a part of the Joint Venture share the governance, risks and rewards of the joint venture.  

In a Joint venture the corporations who come together to form a joint venture retain their distinct entities.


7 0
3 years ago
Cute Camel Woodcraft Company just reported earnings after tax (also called net income) of $9,750,000 and a current stock price o
Assoli18 [71]

Answer:

Explanation:

a)

earning per share =  Net income / outstanding shares  

= $9,750,000 / 5,500,000  = $1.77

price earning ratio = Current stock price \  earning per share

= $39.50 \ $1.77  = 22.32

new Earning per share = Net income / outstanding shares

= $9,750,000 * 125% / 8,400,000  = $1.45

the stock price after one year would be

= Price earning ratio * New earning per share  = 22.32 * $1.45  = $32.36

b)

Market to book ratio = Market value/ book value  

Market value = Share price * number of outstanding shares

= $47.12 * 8,400,000 shares  = $395,808,000

book value is $54,364,800

M/B = $395,808,000 / $54,364,800  = 7.28 times

Is it possible for a company to exhibit a negative EPS and thus a negative P/E ratio?

Yes, if company is having losses

7 0
3 years ago
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