Answer:
Diluted earnings per share is $2.87
Explanation:
The extent to which the option would dilute the earnings per share to the extent of the difference between the option of price and the share market price.
The shares that are capable of dilute the earnings can be computed thus:
Market price-option price/market price*outstanding options shares
market price is $36
option price is $30
outstanding options shares is 12,600
($36-$30)/$36*12,600=2,100 shares
Diluted earnings per share=$602,000/(208,000+2100)=$2.87
Answer:
False
Explanation:
In a command or planned economy, the factors of production are owned and controlled by the government. The government makes all the significant economic decisions such as production, distribution, and pricing.
The government prepares a central plan for the entire economy. The plan determines the production level, the goods and services to be produced, and their prices. The central government employs all workers. The private sector does not exist.
Answer:
The number of shares that Brick should use to calculate 2015 diluted earnings per share are 202,000 shares
Explanation:
The computation of the number of shares are shown below:
= January 1 shares + may 1 shares + convertible cumulative preferred stock
= 170,000 shares × 4 months ÷ 12 months + 200,000 shares × 8 months ÷ 12 months + 12,000 shares
= $56666.67 + $133,333.33 + $12,000
= $202,000 shares
The 4 months are calculated from January 1 to May 1, 2015
And, the 8 months are calculated from May 1 to December 31
Answer:
E. Ursula is likely to prevail because an enforceable unilateral contract exists based on her provision of information leading to the capture of Victor.
Explanation:
A unilateral contract is in existence because safe bank has made an offer to pay $10,000. And in a unilateral contract when an offerer like safe bank makes an offer, the offer is accepted through actual performance which Ted has done through information Ursula provided. Therefore Ursula would prevail because unilateral contracts are enforceable by the law.
Answer:
(C) $745
Explanation:
The computation is given below:
For computing the bad debt expense, first we have to determine the ending account receivable balance which is shown below:
Ending account receivable balance = Beginning account receivable + credit sales - collections -
written off amount
= $20,000 + $70,000 - $74,700 - $400
= $15,300
So, the bad debt expense is
= Ending account receivable × given percentage
= $15,300 × 5%
= $745
