Answer:
A.$73.75 billions
B. $50 billion
C. 0.18%
Explanation:
a. The real GDP change in response by
(1/(1 −MPC) ×$35.4 billion = (1/(1 −0.52) ×$35.4 billion =$73.75 billion.
b. If in addition to the consumer spending change in part a, unplanned inventory invest-ment decreases by $50 billion, the resulting change in real GDP is
$73.75 billion - $50 billion = $23.75 billion.
c.The percent increase in GDP is
($23.75 billion/$13,139.5 billion) ×100
=0.18%
<u>Answer:</u>
<em>C) When profits are zero, the firm is earning sufficient revenue to cover the opportunity cost.
</em>
<em></em>
<u>Explanation:</u>
When benefits are zero, the firm is gaining adequate income to cater for the open door expense. Misfortunes bring about exit and discharge assets to stream to business sectors where there are benefits. Minimal income and negligible expenses are equivalent; some other yield levels will bring about decreased interest.
Since quite a while ago running a focused balance, a firm is winning zero financial benefits as they won't keep on delivering because it could procure a superior return in another industry. Keep on creating because such interest relates to negative bookkeeping benefits.
D.
The rest simply don't make sense, but D reflects the concepts of fixed and variable costs / expenses.
Answer:
Supplies would be increased by $1,000
Cash would be decreased by $400
Accounts Payable would be increased by $600
Explanation:
Given that
Supplies costing = $1,000
Out of which $400 is paid by cash
And, the remaining amount i.e
= $1,000 - $400
= $600
This remaining amount would be on account i.e account payable
Since cash is paid so it decreased by $400 and supplies is purchased for $1,000 that means supplies increases by $1,000 and account payable is also increased by $600
