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Anna11 [10]
3 years ago
8

Peter's Audio has a yield to maturity on its debt of 7.8 percent, a cost of equity of 12.4 percent, and a cost of preferred stoc

k of 8 percent. The firm has 105,000 shares of common stock outstanding at a market price of $22 a share. There are 25,000 shares of preferred stock outstanding at a market price of $45 a share. The bond issue has a total face value of $1.5 million and sells at 98 percent of face value. If the tax rate is 34 percent, what is the weighted average cost of capital?
Business
1 answer:
nadezda [96]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

WACC = 9.22%

Explanation:

after tax cost of debt = 7.8% x (1 - 34%) = 5.148%

Re = 12.4%

cost of preferred stock = 8%

total value:

105,000 common stocks x $22 = $2,310,000

25,000 preferred stocks x $45 = $1,125,00

$1,500,000 bonds x 0.98 = $1,470,000

total value = $4,905,000

capital structure:

common stocks = $2,310 / $4,905 = 47.09%

preferred stocks = $1,125,00 / $4,905 = 22.94%

debt = $1,470,00 / $4,905 = 29.97%

WACC = (47.09% x 0.124) + (22.94% x 0.08) + (29.97% x 0.05148) = 9.22%

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Under FINRA rules, to recommend a direct participation program to a customer, the registered representative must ascertain that
mylen [45]

Answer:

has a fair market net worth sufficient to sustain the risks of the program.

Explanation:

FINRA is an acronym for Financial Industry Regulatory Authority. It is a non-profit agency in the United States of America, which is saddled with the responsibility of handling the licensing and regulation of broker-dealers in securities.

A direct participation program (DPP) can be defined as a financial security which gives an investor (customer) access to the cash flow and tax benefits of a business venture.

Under FINRA rules, to recommend a direct participation program (DPP) to a customer, the registered representative must ascertain and ensure that the customer has a fair market net worth that is considered to be sufficient to sustain the risks associated with the program, including loss of investment and lack of liquidity.

5 0
3 years ago
JOURNAL ENTRIES<br>cash withdrawn by the owner for private use Rs. 25000 <br>PLEASE HELP . ​
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

he withdrw 25,000

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Maggie's Muffins, Inc., generated $2,000,000 in sales during 2015, and its year-end total assets were $1,400,000. Also, at year-
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

The Sales will increase by $350,000 (2000,000 * 17.5%)

Explanation:

As we know that,

Self Supporting Growth Rate = Return on Equity * (1 - Payout Ratio) ...Eq1

Here

Payout ratio given is 50%

and

Return on Equity =  35% <u>(Step 1)</u>

By putting values in Eq1, we have:

Self Supporting Growth Rate = 35% * (1 - 50%)

Self Supporting Growth Rate = 17.5%

Which means that Sales will increase by $350,000 (2000,000 * 17.5%) which is 17.5%.

<u>Step 1: Find Return on Equity</u>

We know that:

Return on Equity = Net Income / Equity ..............Eq2

As we are not given value of Net Income we can not calculate the value of return on equity. But there is another way that we can calculate by simply multiplying and dividing by sales on Left hand side of the Eq2 equation.

Return on Equity = Net Income / Equity          * Sales / Sales

By rearranging, we have:

Return on Equity = Net Income / Sales  *   Sales / Equity

Now here,

Net Income / Sales  = Profit Margin

By putting this in the above equation, we have:

Return on Equity = Profit Margin  * Sales / Equity

Here

Profit Margin is 7% given in the question.

Sales were $2,000,000

And  

Equity is $400,000 <u>(Step 2)</u>

By putting values, we have:

Return on Equity = 7%  * $2,000,000 / $400,000

Return on Equity = <u>35%</u>

<u>Step 2. Find Equity</u>

Equity = Assets - Liabilities

Here,

Assets are worth $1,400,000

Liabilities are standing at $1,000,000 which includes only current liabilities because company doesn't have any long term borrowings

By putting the values, we have:

Equity = $1,400,000 - $1,000,000 = <u>$400,000</u>

<u>Brother, don't forget to rate the answer.</u>

5 0
3 years ago
As it turns out, Brian and Sondra's good fortune with the restaurant has caused their competitors to lose business. In fact, Caj
iren2701 [21]

Answer: Brian and Sondra have, done nothing illegal

Explanation:

Brian and Sondra company are totally in their right, they are not directly involved in the poor fortunes of their competitors.

A rise in sales at Brian and Sondra company led to drop in the sales of their competitors leading to closure of their competitors businesses.

5 0
3 years ago
Speedy Delivery Company purchases a delivery van for $32,000. Speedy estimates that at the end of its four-year service life, th
RSB [31]

Answer:

(1) Straight-line.

Year 1 depreciation expense = $6,500

Year 2 depreciation expense = $6,500

(2) Double-declining-balance.

Year 1 depreciation expense = $16,000

Year 2 depreciation expense = $8,000

(3) Activity-based.

Year 1 depreciation expense = $7,000

Year 1 depreciation expense = $7,600

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Speedy Delivery Company purchases a delivery van for $32,000. Speedy estimates that at the end of its four-year service life, the van will be worth $6,000. During the four-year period, the company expects to drive the van 130,000 miles. Actual miles driven each year were 35,000 miles in year 1 and 38,000 miles in year 2.

Required:

Calculate annual depreciation for the first two years of the van using each of the following methods.

(1) Straight-line.

(2) Double-declining-balance.

(3) Activity-based.

The explanation of the answers is now given as follows:

(1) Straight-line.

Depreciable amount = Cost of the delivery van – Salvage value = $32,000 - $6,000 = $26,000

Annual depreciation rate = 1 / Number of useful years = 1 / 4 = 0.25, or 25%

Year 1 depreciation expense = Depreciable amount * Annual depreciation rate = $26,000 * 25% = $6,500

Year 2 depreciation expense = Depreciable amount * Annual depreciation rate = $26,000 * 25% = $6,500

(2) Double-declining-balance.

Note: The salvage value is taken care of in the computation of the depreciation expense for the last useful year under the double-declining-balance method.

Therefore, we have:

Cost of the delivery van = $32,000

Annual depreciation rate = Straight line annual depreciation rate * 2 = 25% * 2 = 50%

Year 1 depreciation expense = Cost of the delivery van * Annual depreciation rate = $32,000 * 50% = $16,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = Cost of the delivery van - Year 1 depreciation expense = $36,000 - $16,000 = $16,000

Year 2 depreciation expense = Book value at the end of year 1 * Annual depreciation rate = $16,000 * 50% = $8,000

(3) Activity-based.

Depreciable amount = Cost of the delivery van – Salvage value = $32,000 - $6,000 = $26,000

Depreciation rate = Actual miles driven each year / Expected driven miles for four years ……….. (1)

Depreciation expense for each year = Depreciable amount * Depreciation rate …………… (2)

Using equations (2), we have:

Year 1 depreciation expense = $26,000 * (35,000 / 130,000) = $7,000

Year 1 depreciation expense = $26,000 * (38,000 / 130,000) = $7,600

5 0
2 years ago
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