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Dennis_Churaev [7]
3 years ago
8

Using the income statement method for accounting for uncollectible accounts, a company estimates that 2.5% of credit sales will

eventually become uncollectible. If credit sales during the year are $400,000 and accounts receivable at the end of the year are $80,000, the adjustment for estimated uncollectible accounts will require
a: Credit to Accounts Receivable for $2,000.
b. Debit to Bad Debt Expense for $10,000.
c. Debit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts for $10,000.
d. Credit to Bad Debt Expense for $8,000.
Business
1 answer:
Digiron [165]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

the adjustment for estimated uncollectible accounts will require

b. Debit to Bad Debt Expense for $10,000.

Explanation:

There are two primary methods for estimating bad-debt expense. The first is an income-statement approach that measures bad debt as a percentage of sales.

Accout receivable at the end_ 80000

Credit sales_______________400000

 

Estimate________________ 2,50%

Debit bas debt expense______10000

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During a risk brainstorming session a team member identifies a risk. This particular risk does not seem to belong to any of the
Darya [45]

Answer:

Record it in the risk register, discuss potential responses and make a note to update the RBS.

Explanation:

Risk management is the process by which the management of an organisation identifies, assessed, and controls threats that may affect the company's capital or earnings.

The risks can be as a result of natural disasters, management error, financial uncertainty, or accidents.

In the given instance if a risk is not on any of the categories in you Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS), there is need to record it in the risk register, discuss potential responses and make a note to update the RBS.

7 0
3 years ago
What is the present value of the future cash flows, if you also could earn $110,000 per year rent on the property? The rent is p
dem82 [27]

Answer:

a. The present value of the sales price is $1.657 million.

b. No. This is because an investment in the property will result in a negative net present value (NPV) of $0.443 million.

c-1. The present value of the future cash flows is $2.122 million.

c-2. Yes. Yes. This is because an investment in the property will result in a positive net present value (NPV) of $0.022 million.

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore presented before answering the question as follows:

You can buy property today for $2.1 million and sell it in 6 years for $3.1 million. (You earn no rental income on the property.)

a. If the interest rate is 11%, what is the present value of the sales price? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 3 decimal places.)

b. Is the property investment attractive to you?

c-1. What is the present value of the future cash flows, if you also could earn $110,000 per year rent on the property? The rent is paid at the end of each year. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 3 decimal places.)

c-2. Is the property investment attractive to you now?

The explanation to the answers is now provided as follows:

a. If the interest rate is 11%, what is the present value of the sales price? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 3 decimal places.)

The present value of the sales price can be calculated using the simple present value formula as follows:

PV = FV / (1 + r)^n ……………………….. (1)

Where;

PV = Present value of the sales price = ?

FV = Future value or the sales price in 6 years = $3.1 million

r = interest rate = 11%, or 0.11

n = number of years = 6

Substitute the values into equation (1), we have:

PV = $3.1 / (1 + 0.11)^6

PV = $3.1 / 1.11^6

PV = $3.1 / 1.870414552161

PV = $1.65738659187525 million

Rounding to 3 decimal places, we have:

PV = $1.657 million

Therefore, the present value of the sales price is $1.657 million.

b. Is the property investment attractive to you?

No. This is because an investment in the property will result in a negative net present value (NPV) of $0.443 million.

The negative net present value (NPV) of $0.443 million is determined as follows:

NPV = Present value of the sales price - Acquisition cost = $1.657 million - $2.1 million = -$0.443 million

c-1. What is the present value of the future cash flows, if you also could earn $110,000 per year rent on the property? The rent is paid at the end of each year. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 3 decimal places.)

The present value of the future cash flows can be calculated using the following steps:

<u>Step 1: Calculation of the present value of the $110,000 per year rent</u>

Since the rent is paid at end of each year, this can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PVR = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PVR = Present value of yearly rent = ?

P = Annual rent =$110,000

r = interest rate = 11%, or 0.11

n = number of years = 6

Substitute the values into equation (2) to have:

PVR = $110,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.11))^6) / 0.11)

PVR = $110,000 * 4.23053785373826

PVR = $465,359.163911209

Converting to million and rounded to 3 decimal places, we have:

PVR = $0.465 million

<u>Step 2: Calculation of the present value of the future cash flows</u>

Present value of future cash flows = Present value sales price + Present value of annual rent ……. (3)

Where;

Present value sales price = $1.657 million, as already calculate in part a above

Present value of annual rent = PVR = $0.465 million

Substituting the values into equation (3), we have:

Present value of future cash flows = $1.657 million + $0.465 million = $2.122 million

Therefore, the present value of the future cash flows is $2.122 million.

c-2. Is the property investment attractive to you now?

Yes. This is because an investment in the property will result in a positive net present value (NPV) of $0.022 million.

The positive net present value (NPV) of $0.022 million is determined as follows:

NPV = Present value of tof the future cash flows - Acquisition cost = $2.122 million - $2.1 million = 0.0219999999999998 million

Converting to million and rounded to 3 decimal places, we have:

NPV = $0.022 million

6 0
3 years ago
Richards Corporation uses the FIFO method of process costing. The following information is available for October in its Fabricat
densk [106]

Answer:

Equivalent units of conversion cost = 317,000 units

Explanation:

T<em>he equivalent unit is the notional whole units which represent incomplete work and is used to apportion cost between cost between work in progress and completed units</em>

Item                units                                                  Equivalent units

Opening WIP   80,000      (80,000× 80%)   =      64,000

Fully worked   250,000     (250,000× 100)  =      250,000

Closing WIP     30,000      (30,000× 10%)    =        <u>3,000</u>

Total equivalent units                                               <u>317,000.</u>

1. DOC for opening inventory is 80%, that is 100%-20%. Remember that 20% work has been done in the previous period, so the balance is to be done in this current period

2. Fully work represent the units of inventory introduced in the current period and completed in the same period. Meaning 100% work was achieved in October .

3. Closing work is only 10% completed. This represent work started this period but not yet completed.

6 0
3 years ago
Confirm that you can find the financial statements for Starbucks Corporation​ (SBUX) as of Sep​ 28, 2014 using the following​ so
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

from the company web page

7 0
3 years ago
The beginning and ending balances of retained earnings for the year were $55,000 and $82,000, respectively. If dividend payments
bonufazy [111]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

We can use the following simple formula:

Beginning retained earnings balance = Ending retained earnings balance − Net Income + Dividends

Therefore,

Net Income = Ending retained earnings balance -  Beginning retained earnings balance + Dividends

Net Income = $82,000 - $55,000 + $8,000

Net Income = $35,000.

Therefore, net income is equal to $35,000.

4 0
3 years ago
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