The immediate cause for World War 1 was the assassination of the Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria and his pregnant wife Sophie. Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria was the nephew of Emperor Franz Josef and heir to the throne of Austria and Hungary.
Yes it is actually because they both do the same stuff
Actually it will always depend on the commanders and type of battle that will commences. Also it will depend on the economic stature of the country and whether it could outwit the other countries in case of war of attrition. Each of the country has their own strength and weaknesses that can attribute to the victory and defeat of the country. If we would based the performance between the three countries in world war 2 period, Germany can oust the two countries in a fast war based on the army size. If it would be a naval combat based on the choices it would be Great Britain can win due to the advantage but statistics can only forecast and can't be an accurate based on victory like the U-boat campaign of the Germans that damage the prestige of the Royal Navy. If in reserves and manpower the French could muster a large amount of men and has an average size of army and navy that can stand a battle against the other countries stated.
Ghana fell because of invading forces and internal disputes.
