Part A you would just distribute your 3 to your X and your 5. After doing that you would get 3x+15+x=4x. Next you would combine like terms, meaning combine your x's together that is on the same side of your equal sign. So you would add 3x and x. When finished with that you would get, 4x+15=4x. You would then subtract your 4x on both sides of your equal sign. You then would get 15=0 which is no solution.
Part B you would distribute your 4 to your 1 and -x. After doing this your equation should then look like 4-4x=5x+8. Next you would try to get your like terms together. You would add 4x on both sides of your equal sign. Your equation should then look like 4=9x+8. Next you would subtract your 8 on both sides of the equal sign because your getting your terms together. Your equation should then look like, -4=9x. This answer would be one solution.
Part C you would combine your like terms, meaning add your 2x and x together to get your equation looking like, 3x+5=5+3x. You can tell just by looking at this equation it's going to be a infinite number of solutions.
Hope this helps! (:
Answer:
2 15 sorry po kung mali
Step-by-step explanation:
Wala pong step by step
So,...
the slope intercept form is y = mx+b
the m is the slope, and the b is the coordinate that intercepts the y-axis
so to start you off, 4x - 9y = 2
4x - 9y = 2
-4x - 4y
-9y = -4y +2
divide both sides by -9
<u>-9y </u>= <u>-4y + 2</u>
-9 -9
y = 4/9 x - 2/9
Answer:
We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.
We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.
Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

With the following parameters:


Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.
We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.
Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

With the following parameters:


Answer: B. 200ft
Step-by-step explanation:
Pythagorean theorem so a^2+b^2+c^2 or 120^2+160^2=c^2 where c is the value for the diagonal so solving for c to get 200