Answer:
yaah lower is only the answer
Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.
Answer: A. Sales-type lease
Explanation:
A Sales type lease is one where the present value of all the lease payments of the Asset being leased is more than the cost/ carrying amount of the Asset.
The present value of the lease Payments is the Fair Value of the asset and as seen from the question, the fair value of the asset is more than the cost of the Asset. The lease will therefore be accounted for as a Sales type lease by the lessor.
It is worthy of note that this entry affects only the lessor.
Answer:
Option (a) $372.60
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Number of days during which the seller occupied the house = 136 days
Estimated cost for the entire year = $1,000
Now,
The period of time during which the seller occupied the house in years
= Number of days during which the seller occupied the house ÷ Total number of days in a year
= 136 ÷ 365
= 0.37260
Therefore,
The amount that the buyer will be credited = 0.37260 × $1,000
= $372.60
