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ludmilkaskok [199]
3 years ago
12

A parallelogram has a height of 15 feet a base of 17 feet and a side length of 18 feet what is the area and perimeter

Mathematics
1 answer:
butalik [34]3 years ago
4 0
I hope this helps you

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Please help me understand this problem! It would be greatly appreciated <3 much love
cricket20 [7]

Answer:

all work is shown and pictured

3 0
4 years ago
SHOW UR WORK PLEASE HELP DUE IN A COUPLE MINUTES D:
seraphim [82]

Answer:

each card's thickness ×no of cards=total thickness

3/160×X=3/4

X=3/4×160/3

X=40

40 cards r in the stack

6 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
What is the range help will mark Brainlest
dsp73

Answer:

70-79

Step-by-step explanation:

If you look at the histogram, the graph that has 70-79 is the lowest.

Hope this helps plz mark brainliest :D

5 0
3 years ago
Find the value of x, y, and z.
Anna [14]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the 3 angles in a triangle = 180°, thus

x = 180° - (52 + 32)° = 180° - 84° = 96°

The external angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the 2 opposite interior angles.

y is an exterior angle of the triangle, thus

y = 52° + 32° = 84°

z = 180° - (55 + 84)° = 180° - 139° = 41°

In conclusion

x = 96°, y = 84° and z = 41°

6 0
4 years ago
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