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Y_Kistochka [10]
4 years ago
10

Given the following perfect square trinomial, fill in the missing term. x2 − 16x + ____

Mathematics
1 answer:
ahrayia [7]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

x^{2}-16x+64

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this problem you must apply the proccedure shown below:

1. You have the following perfect square trinomial given in the problem:

x^{2}-16+

2. To fill the missing term, you must divide the coefficient -16 by 2 and then you must square it, as following:

(\frac{-16}{2})^{2}=(-8)^{2}=64

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The answer is Letter C - 130<span>°
</span>
Coterminal Angles are angles that share a common terminal or end position. In finding the coterminal angle, you can add or deduct 360°. In this case, you are asked to get its positive coterminal angle. You will simply add 360° to -230°.

Solution: 360° + -230° = 130°
7 0
3 years ago
Antoine and Tess have a disagreement over how to compute a 15% gratuity on $46.00. Tess says, “It is easy to find 10% of 46 by m
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:it's B

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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
BRANLIEST WILL BE GIVEN
amm1812

Answer:

The correct is 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that figure ABCD is transformed to figure A′B′C′D′.

The vertices of ABCD are A(1,1), B(3,3), C(4,2) and D(4,1).

The vertices of A'B'C'D' are A'(1,-3), B'(3,-1), C'(4,-2) and D'(4,-3).

It is clear that the figure translate 4 units down and the rule of translation is

(x ,y) -->(x ,y - 4)

3 0
3 years ago
5. The volleyball team has a double-header on Friday. The probability that they
Nikolay [14]

Answer: 54.29%

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: The probability that they  will win both games is 38%.

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P(first game will win) = 0.70

To find : P(second game will win| first game will win)

Using formula: P(B|A)=\dfrac{P(\text{both A and B})}{P(A)}

So, P(second game will win| first game will win) = \dfrac{\text{ P( both games will win)}}{\text{P(first game will win)}}

=\frac{0.38}{0.70}\approx0.5429=54.29\%

Hence, the required probability = 54.29%

4 0
3 years ago
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avanturin [10]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation

Unit rate is a fraction that has a one in the denominator

so you have 42/7 = n/1  so to make 7 a 1 , we divide by 7 . We do the same thing on top 42 divided by 7 is 6.

5 0
4 years ago
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