Get fit gym charges a yearly fee of $250 plus $10 for each session with a personal trainer. Tight N' Toned gym charges a one tim
1 answer:
Question is Incomplete;Complete question is given below;
Get fit gym charges a yearly fee of $250 plus $10 for each session with a personal trainer. Tight N' Toned gym charges a one time fee of $50 plus $30 per session for a personal trainer. For how many sessions is the cost of the two plans the same?
Answer:
After 10 session with personal trainer the cost of both gym plans would be same.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let number of session with the trainer be 's'.
Given:
Get fit gym Plan:
Yearly fee = $250
Each session with personal trainer = $10
So we can say that;
Total Cost after 's' session will be equal to Yearly fee plus Each session with personal trainer multiplied by number of session with the trainer
framing in equation form we get;
Total Cost =
Tight N' Toned gym Plan:
One time fee = $50
Each session with personal trainer = $30
So we can say that;
Total Cost after 's' session will be equal to One time fee plus Each session with personal trainer multiplied by number of session with the trainer
framing in equation form we get;
Total Cost =
We need to find the number sessions after which cost of the two plans will be the same.
To find the number sessions after which cost of the two plans will be the same we will make both the equations equal we get;
Combining like terms we get;
Now dividing both side by 20 we get;
Hence after 10 session with personal trainer the cost of both gym plans would be same.
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Answer:
B the range, the x- and y-intercept
Step-by-step explanation:
the domain stays the same : all values of x are possible out of the interval (-infinity, +infinity).
but the range changes, as for the original function y could only have positive values - even for negative x.
the new function has a first term (with b) that can get very small for negative x, and then a subtraction of 2 makes the result negative.
the y-intercept (x=0) of the original function is simply y=1, as b⁰=1.
the y-intercept of the new function is definitely different, because the first term 3×(b¹) is larger than 3, because b is larger than 1. and a subtraction of 2 leads to a result larger than 1, which is different to 1.
the original function has no x-intercept (y=0), as this would happen only for x = -infinity. and that is not a valid value.
the new function has an x-intercept, because the y-values (range) go from negative to positive numbers. any continuous function like this must therefore have an x-intercept (again, y = the function result = 0)