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rjkz [21]
3 years ago
5

A pancake recipe require 1 2/3 cups of flour to make 20 pancakes and you have 9 cups of flour.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Leokris [45]3 years ago
3 0
<h2>Solution (a) :-</h2>

Quantity of flour needed to make 20 pancakes =

= 1 \frac{2}{3}  \:

=  \frac{3  \times 1 + 2}{3}

=  \frac{5}{3}  \: cups \: of \: flour

Then , number of pancakes that can be made from 1 cup of floor :-

20 \div  \frac{5}{3}

20 \times  \frac{3}{5}

\frac{60}{5}

= 12 \: pancakes .

Therefore , 12 pancakes can be made from 1 cup of floor .

<h2>Solution (b) :-</h2>

Number of pancakes that can be made with 1 cup of flour = 12 pancakes

Number of pancakes that can be made with 9 cups of flour :-

= 9 × 12

= 108 pancakes

Therefore , I can make 108 pancakes with 9 cups of flour .

<h2>Solution (c) :-</h2>

Yes , I have enough flour to make 100 pancakes . I say this because :-

With one cup of flour I can make = 12 pancakes

With 9 cups of flour I can make =

= 9 × 12

= 108 pancakes

As I can make 108 pancakes with 9 cups of flour , I can conclude that I have enough flour to make 100 pancakes .

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Fed [463]
1/2(2 + 6) is another one boi
7 0
3 years ago
Mr. Doyle washed
KiRa [710]

Answer:

Mr Doyle washed the most.

4/15 still need to be washed.

Step-by-step explanation:

2/5=6/15  Mr Doyle

1/3=5/15   Son

so Mr Doyle washed the most.

Together they washed 11/15 of the laundry so 4/15 is left to wash.

7 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP
katrin2010 [14]

The game that is  used for the scenario above in terms of fair play is  using a balloon. Here, the player will hit the balloon.

<h3>What is the scenario under the balloon game?</h3>

The rule of play are:

This is a classic game with simple rules which are:

  • Each player to hit the balloon up and it bonce into the air but when one should not allow it to touch the ground.,
  • Players would be tied together in twos and they will juggle a lot of balloon and it have to be more than 1 balloon with one of their hands tied to their back.

A scenario of the worksheet game whose expected value is 0 is given below:

Assume that it costs about $1 for a player to play the billon game and as such, if  the player hits a balloon, they will be given $3. what can you say. Can you say that it this game is fair or not? and who has the biggest advantage.

Solution

Note that a  game is ”fair” if the expected value is said to be 0. When a player is said to hits a balloon, their net profit often increase by $4.  So when the player do not hit a balloon, it drops to $1.

(4)(0.313) + (-1)(0.313)

= 0.939 approximately

Thus, the expected value is $0.939 which tells that the game is fair.

Learn more about fair play from

brainly.com/question/24855677

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
A bus as speed of 20m/s begin to slow at constant acceleration of 8.00m/s2 along a straight line find the average speed for the
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

-20 m/s.

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the average speed is shown below:

Given that

The initial velocity of the bus, u = 20 m/s

Aceleration of the bus, -a = 8 m/s²

time of motion, t = 5 s

Now The final velocity of the bus is  

v = u + at

v = 20 + (-8 × 5)

v = 20 - 40

v = -20 m/s.

6 0
3 years ago
For 0 ≤ ϴ &lt; 2π, how many solutions are there to tan(StartFraction theta Over 2 EndFraction) = sin(ϴ)? Note: Do not include va
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

3 solutions:

\theta={0, \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{2}}

Step-by-step explanation:

So, first of all, we need to figure the angles that cannot be included in our answers out. The only function in the equation that isn't defined for some angles is tan(\frac{\theta}{2}) so let's focus on that part of the equation first.

We know that:

tan(\frac{\theta}{2})=\frac{sin(\frac{\theta}{2})}{cos(\frac{\theta}{2})}

therefore:

cos(\frac{\theta}{2})\neq0

so we need to find the angles that will make the cos function equal to zero. So we get:

cos(\frac{\theta}{2})=0

\frac{\theta}{2}=cos^{-1}(0)

\frac{\theta}{2}=\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi n

or

\theta=\pi+2\pi n

we can now start plugging values in for n:

\theta=\pi+2\pi (0)=\pi

if we plugged any value greater than 0, we would end up with an angle that is greater than 2\pi so,  that's the only angle we cannot include in our answer set, so:

\theta\neq \pi

having said this, we can now start solving the equation:

tan(\frac{\theta}{2})=sin(\theta)

we can start solving this equation by using the half angle formula, such a formula tells us the following:

tan(\frac{\theta}{2})=\frac{1-cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}

so we can substitute it into our equation:

\frac{1-cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=sin(\theta)

we can now multiply both sides of the equation by sin(\theta)

so we get:

1-cos(\theta)=sin^{2}(\theta)

we can use the pythagorean identity to rewrite sin^{2}(\theta) in terms of cos:

sin^{2}(\theta)=1-cos^{2}(\theta)

so we get:

1-cos(\theta)=1-cos^{2}(\theta)

we can subtract a 1 from both sides of the equation so we end up with:

-cos(\theta)=-cos^{2}(\theta)

and we can now add cos^{2}(\theta)

to both sides of the equation so we get:

cos^{2}(\theta)-cos(\theta)=0

and we can solve this equation by factoring. We can factor cos(\theta) to get:

cos(\theta)(cos(\theta)-1)=0

and we can use the zero product property to solve this, so we get two equations:

Equation 1:

cos(\theta)=0

\theta=cos^{-1}(0)

\theta={\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{2}}

Equation 2:

cos(\theta)-1=0

we add a 1 to both sides of the equation so we get:

cos(\theta)=1

\theta=cos^{-1}(1)

\theta=0

so we end up with three answers to this equation:

\theta={0, \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{2}}

7 0
2 years ago
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