Answer:
As the question was not complete. I have attached the complete question in the attachment. Please refer to attachment.
Explanation:
<em>By using, LD = 95- 3w and w1 = 7.25 and w2 = 9. We get,
</em>
<em>LD1 = 95-3(7.25) = 73.25
</em>
<em>LD2 = 95-3(9) = 68
</em>
Elasticity = Change in labor demand/ change in wage rate = ((68- 73.25)/ 73.25)/ ((9-7.25/7.25)) = -0.33
The 11 percent change in the wage rate causes, 33% change in labor demanded, as shown by the elasticity, the labor demand decreases with increase in wage rate.
Answer:
The correct answer is option A.
Explanation:
Income tax is a tax imposed by the government on the income earned by the individuals. This income can be from capital and labor. It creates a deadweight loss in the market for labor and capital.
Deadweight loss is the loss to economic efficiency and production caused by a tax. The imposition of a tax creates a tax wedge, this tax wedge leads to a deadweight loss. Deadweight loss due to income tax is the loss of purchasing power or reductions standard of living due to tax.
The inefficiency or tax burden depends upon the elasticities of demand and supply. Whoever has the least elasticity will share most of the tax burden.
Answer:
$906.30
Explanation:
Face value (FV) = $1000
Coupon payment (C) = 7% of $1000 = $70
Yield to maturity (r) = 8% = 0.08
t = 18
Number of compounding periods (n) = 1 (annually)
Using the relation:
C[( 1 - (1 + r/n)^-nt) / (r/n)] + FV / (1 + r/n)^nt
70[(1 - (1 + 0.08)^-1*18) / (0.08/1)] + 1000 / (1 + 0.08/1)^1*18
70[1 - (1.08)^-18) / 0.08] + 1000 / 1.08^18
70[(1 - 0.2502490)/0.08] + (1000 / 3.99601949918)
70(9.3718871) + 250.24902
= $906.281117
= $906.30
Explanation:
The adjusting entry is as follows
On January 31
Unearned revenue A/c Dr $3,500
To Magazine subscription revenue A/c $3,500
(Being the unearned revenue is recorded)
The computation is shown below:
= Sale value of annual subscriptions ÷ total number of months in a year
= $42,000 ÷ 12 months
= $3,500
Answer:
1.25
Explanation:
The Capital Asset Pricing model will be used
ße = ßa × [Ve + Vd(1 – T)] / Ve
Here
ße = 1.08
Ve = Value of equity $50 million
Vd = Value of debt $10 million
T is tax rate which is 21%.
By putting the values, we have:
ße = 1.08 × [50 + 10(1 – 21%)] / 50
ße = 1.25
The beta equity of Chocolate Cookie is 1.25 which shows higher risk than average risk.
