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nikitadnepr [17]
3 years ago
7

All of the following statements related to preparation of the statement of cash flows under U.S. GAAP and IFRS are true except:

Multiple Choice Both U.S. GAAP and IFRS permit the reporting of cash flows from operating activities using either the direct or indirect method. IFRS permits classification of interest expense under operating or financing activities provided it is consistently applied across periods. IFRS permits the splitting of income tax cash flows among operating, investing, and financing depending on the sources of that tax. U.S. GAAP requires cash outflows for income tax be classified as operating activities. IFRS permits classification of cash outflows for interest expense under operating or financing based on which one results in better cash flows from operating activities.
Business
1 answer:
iVinArrow [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: IFRS permits the classification of cash outflows for interest expense under operating or financing based on which one results in better cash flows from operating activities.

Explanation: The cash flow statement includes only inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents; it excludes transactions that do not directly affect cash receipts and payments. These non-cash transactions include depreciation or write-offs on bad debts or credit losses to name a few.

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Messing Company has an agreement with a third-party credit card company, which calls for cash to be received immediately upon de
olasank [31]

Answer:

Thee jounal entry for January 1 of Messing Company is done below.

Explanation:

3.5% * 4000 = 140

Date                Account Titles                                                Dr             Cr

Jan 1           Cash                                                                $3,860

                   Credit Card Expense                                        140

                          Sales Revenue                                                           4,000

4 0
3 years ago
Kendall Corners Inc. recently reported net income of $3.1 million and depreciation of $500,000. What was its net cash flow?
podryga [215]

Answer:

Net cashflow = Net income + Depreciation

Net cashflow = 3,100,000 + 500,000 = 3,600,000 dollars

Explanation:

Net cashflow equals net income plus depreciation.

3 0
3 years ago
How physical asset valuation (PAV) and research and
stellarik [79]

Answer:

We'll take this one after the other.

A. First Physical Asset Valuation (PAV) refers to the act of writing up or writing down the carrying value of an organisations assets in its balance sheet.

In simple terms, it refers to increasing upwards or downwards the value of an organisations asset in its balance sheet.

When assets are written down, the following are likely to occur:

Critical changes to an organization’s business model or strategy, such as termination of the business and  loss of a regulatory licence;

A significant reduction in the cash flow or bottom line of the business;

when the long term growth rates, interest rates or other financial factors such as prices or value of currencies, upon which a business valuation based decline, this impacts the valuation of an asset negatively.

   

B. Research and  Development (R&D)

R&D refers to all the studies, scientific investigations and experiments carried out to enable the discovery and creation of a new or innovative product or service that is more efficient and effective.  

       

The reason there is a risk associated with R&D is that there are usually many elements of uncertainty.  

The ideas being tested are usually novel and have not been tried before.  

Some of the risks associated with R&D are:

the possibility that the new product will fail in the market;

a new product or service that is does not work

the possibility of cost creep. That is a situation where the cost of the R&D outweighs the potential profit from the product or service.

Cheers!

6 0
3 years ago
Many people who want to start investing for their future want to start today, which implies an annuity stream that is paid at th
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

b. annuities due

Explanation:

Annuities due -

It refers to the amount which need to be paid at the regular interval of time , just before the beginning of the new phase , is referred to as annuities due .

The most common example of annuities due is rent , which need to be paid after every month in the starting .

Hence , from the given information of the question ,

The correct option is annuities due.

4 0
3 years ago
Scampini Technologies is expected to generate $25 million in free cash flow next year, and FCF is expected to grow at a constant
Feliz [49]

Answer:

The stock’s value per share is $10.42

Explanation:

For:    

FCF1 = Expected cash flow of the firm

        = $25 million  

WACC = 10%    

g = 4%    

Firm value = FCF1/(WACC - g)    

                  = 25,000,000/(0.10 - 0.04)    

                  = $416,666,666.67    

We know that there is no debt & preferred stock, so the firm value will be equal to Equity value :

Firm value = Equity value

                 = $416,666,666.67

stock value per share = Equity Value/No. of share outstanding

                                     = $416,666,666.67/40,000,000

                                     = $10.42 per share

Therefore, The stock’s value per share is $10.42

7 0
3 years ago
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