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hammer [34]
3 years ago
12

Lim x--> 0 (e^x(sinx)(tax))/x^2

Mathematics
1 answer:
Tom [10]3 years ago
4 0

Make use of the known limit,

\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin x}x=1

We have

\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{e^x\sin x\tan x}{x^2}=\left(\lim_{x\to0}\frac{e^x}{\cos x}\right)\left(\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin^2x}{x^2}\right)

since \tan x=\dfrac{\sin x}{\cos x}, and the limit of a product is the same as the product of limits.

\dfrac{e^x}{\cos x} is continuous at x=0, and \dfrac{e^0}{\cos 0}=1. The remaining limit is also 1, since

\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin^2x}{x^2}=\left(\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin x}x\right)^2=1^2=1

so the overall limit is 1.

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Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to verify the equation:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{1+\sin\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

To start, we can multiply the fraction by (1 - sin(θ)). This yields:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{1+\sin\theta}\left(\frac{1-\sin\theta}{1-\sin\theta}\right) = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

Simplify. The denominator uses the difference of two squares pattern:

\displaystyle \frac{1-\sin\theta}{\underbrace{1-\sin^2\theta}_{(a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2}} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

Recall that sin²(θ) + cos²(θ) = 1. Hence, cos²(θ) = 1 - sin²(θ). Substitute:

\displaystyle \displaystyle \frac{1-\sin\theta}{\cos^2\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

Split into two separate fractions:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{\cos^2\theta} -\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos^2\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta

Rewrite the two fractions:

\displaystyle \left(\frac{1}{\cos\theta}\right)^2-\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}\cdot \frac{1}{\cos\theta}=\sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

By definition, 1 / cos(θ) = sec(θ) and sin(θ)/cos(θ) = tan(θ). Hence:

\displaystyle \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta \stackrel{\checkmark}{=}  \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta

Hence verified.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Hope this helps:)

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
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