Answer:
FV= $772
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Initial investment (PV)= $850
Interest rate (i)= 3.5% = 0.035
Number of periods (n)= 5 years
<u>To calculate the future value (FV), we need to use the following formula:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 650*(1.035^5)
FV= $772
Answer:
The statement is True as well as correct
Explanation:
Allowance method is the financial term which is defined as the uncollectible accounts receivable procedure that reports the estimate of the bad debt expense in the same accounting or fiscal year as the sale.
Under this method, it is used to adjust the accounts receivable which appears on the balance sheet.
For example,
If the company has the credit sales of $800,000 in December and estimate that the 4% will be uncollectible. Then using this method, computing the uncollectible as:
Bad debt expense = Sales × Estimate uncollectible
= $800,000 × 4%
= $32,000
So, this estimate the bad debt expense rather than wait to see which customer will not able to collect.
Answer:
the amount of increase in the common stock is $75,000
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of increase in the common stock is shown below;
= Number of shares of common stock sold × stated value per share
= 15,000 shares × $5 per share
= $75,000
Hence, the amount of increase in the common stock is $75,000
There will be $405 million available to contestants in the following season as LIV golf grows to 14 events in 2023.
<h3><u>LIV golf - what is it?</u></h3>
The LIV Golf League, created as an alternative to the current PGA Tour, attempts to apply the principles of arena-style sporting events to the world of golf. The LIV system, which has a fundamentally different business model than the conventional structure, enables greater financial advantage for those engaged beyond just winning tournaments.
Unlike the PGA Tour, LIV golf allows appearance fees, so players vying for the $20–25 million purse are also able to get additional compensation.
Learn more about LIV golf with the help of the given link:
brainly.com/question/29360586
#SPJ4
Answer:
Option D is the correct option
Explanation:
To find the optimal fund to combine with risk free rate of return, we will use Coefficient of variation,
Coefficient of variation(CoV) = Standard Deviation/Expected Return
CoV of Buckeye = 14%/20% = 0.7
CoV of Wolverine = 11%/12% = 0.9167
So, higher the CoV higher the risk, we will take Buckeye to combine with Risk Free Return.
Hence, Option A
- Required target return of portfolio = 22%
Risk Free return = 8%
Buckeye Return = 20%
Let the weight of Buckeye be X ,& weight of risk free be (1-X)
Required return = (WRF)*(RRF) + (WB)*(RB)
22 = (1-X)(8) + (X)(20)
22 = 8-8X + 20X
14 = 12X
X = 1.17
SO, weight of Buckeye is 1.17 or 117%
while weight of Risk free is -0.17 (1-1.17) or -17%
Hence, ans is OPTION D
