Answer:
32 tablespoons are in 1 pint
Step-by-step explanation:
1/4 cup = 4 tablespoons
2/4 = 8 tablespoons
3/4 = 12 tablespoons
4/4 (1 cup) = 16 tablespoons
16*2 = 32
1 pint = 2 cups = 32 tablespoons
Its D because its naming the objects
Answer:
a = 16
b = 10
In the equation from the question there's no value that you can determine for c.
Step-by-step explanation:
- (4x)(3z+y)+2x(3y+2z)=axz+bxy
- 12xz+4xy+6xy+4xz
- 16xz+10xy
Using it's concept, it is found that there is a 0.713 = 71.3% probability that Rachel takes no more than three sweets from the bag.
<h3>What is a probability?</h3>
A probability is given by the <u>number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes</u>.
In this problem, we have that:
- One sweet, the probability is 3/10.
- For two, the probability is 7/10 then 3/9.
- For three, it is 7/10 then 6/9 then 3/8.
So:

0.713 = 71.3% probability that Rachel takes no more than three sweets from the bag.
More can be learned about the probabilities at brainly.com/question/24826394
Well, 1/3 is equal to 0.3, and 1/4 is equal to .25, so it can't be a.
3/4 is equal to .75 and 6/9 is equal to 0.6, so it can't be b.
5/8 is equal to 0.625 and 20/32 is also equal to 0.625, so it could be c.
7/9 is equal to 0.7 and 21/28 is equal to 0.75, so it can't be D.
Your best bet is C. Because both sides of C are equal.
C 5/8=20/32