Answer:
$725000
Explanation:
The break-even point is the point at which the firms total expenses is equal to its total revenue and it neither makes a profit nor a loss. At any point before this, the firm makes a loss and at any point after this, the firm is making a profit. This is because, it has got to a point where after the unit variable costs are covered from the revenue, there is enough to cover fixed costs as well because the firm’s fixed costs are now being spread over a greater number of units.
The break-even point is calculated as:
Fixed costs / (Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit)
Hence, in this case : $253750 / ($100 - $65) = 7250 units.
In dollars, this would be...
Revenue : 7250 x $100 = $725000
Expenses : $253750 + ($65 x 7250) = $725000
Answer:
I. If labor and capital are perfect substitutes in production, the isoquant is a straight, downward-sloping line.
II. If a company needs to use inputs in fixed proportion such that the capital to labor ratio is always 2, the firm's isoquants are L-shaped.
Explanation:
Perfectly substittuable goods have straight downward sloping ICs, and have corner solutions
.
Complementary goods (used in fixed proportions) are L shaped always
, In case of min(x,y) function, the answer is the value of x or y which ever is minimum and not their sum.
Therefore, Only statements I and II are true.
Answer:
7,540
Explanation:
Principle is $13,000
Rate is 5.8%
Time is 10 years
Therefore the simple interest can be calculated as follows
= principle × rate × time
= 13,000 × 5.8/100 × 10
= 13,000 × 0.058×10
= 7,540
Hence the simple interest is 7,540
Answer:
the cash outflow for expenses is $106,000
Explanation:
The computation of the cash outflow for expenses is shown below:
Beginning balance $46,000
add; expenses $125,000
less; ending balance -$65,000
Cash outflow for expenses $106,000
Hence, the cash outflow for expenses is $106,000
