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Marina CMI [18]
3 years ago
9

The purchasing agent of an organization acquired some raw materials at a bargain price, even though she knew that their quality

was lower than that of the materials customarily used. This action resulted in a favorable raw materials purchase price variance that might very well have been more than offset by:
Business
2 answers:
pshichka [43]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

So a favorable material price variance might be more than offset by an adverse usage variance

Explanation:

<em>Material price variance</em>

<em>A material price variance occurs where materials are purchased at a price either lower or higher than the standard price. </em>A favourable variance is recorded where the actual total cost of materials of a given quantity is lower that the standard cost. While an adverse variance implies the opposite

<em>Material usage variance</em>

<em>A material usage variance occurs when the standard quantity required to active a particular level of production is higher or lower than than the actual actual quantity used.</em> A favorable variance would mean than less quantity of materials were  used than the standard to achieve a given output level. And an adverse variance would mean the opposite

<em>Relationship between Usage variance and Price variance</em>

Where savings are made from purchase of cheap and inferior quality materials these  might lead to an adverse usage variance by a greater value .This is so because  workers might need to use a larger quantity ( more than the standard required) of a low-quality materials to achieve production.

So a favourable material price variance might be more than offset by an adverse usage variance

SCORPION-xisa [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

an unfavorable raw materials usage variance.

Explanation:

When materials are purchased at a price that is lower or higher than the normal purchase price, a material price variance is said to have occurred. The variance is favourable when the normal purchase price is higher than the current cost. On the other hand, an adverse variance is recorded when the opposite happens.

However, when one fails to use the standard quality needed in a production process, then a material variance occurs. The variance is favorable if less material is used and an adverse variance is simply the opposite.

Hence if low quality raw materials are used because they are cheap, the volume needed to achieve a certain standard may be higher than what is usually needed, and hence would offset any favorable price variance.

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3 0
3 years ago
The application of multiple regression analysis to a data set yields an F statistic that is highly significant and t ratios that
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

(B) multicollinearity is present.

Explanation:

Multicollinearity -

It is the process where , one of the predictor variable in the multiple regression model can be linearly predicted from the others with  the substantial degree of accuracy , is known as multicollinearity or  collinearity .

<u>In this case , the coefficient estimated of the multiple regression can change erratically for even a small change in the model .</u>

hence , from the question , the indication is of (B) multicollinearity is present .

6 0
3 years ago
The cash coverage ratio is used to evaluate the:Liquidity of a firmSpeed at which a firm generates cashLength of time that a fir
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": Ability of a firm to pay the interest on its debt.

Explanation:

The cash coverage ratio is a metric that measures a company's ability to pay its financial obligations. Generally, the higher the coverage ratio the better for the business to meet its debt obligations. It is best to compare coverage ratios of companies in the same industry or sector in the economy. Comparisons across industries are not useful as companies in different industries use debt in different ways.

5 0
3 years ago
Round Hammer is comparing two different capital structures: An all-equity plan (Plan I) and a levered plan (Plan II). Under Plan
asambeis [7]

Answer:

EPS of Plan I = $3.19

EPS of Plan II = $2.82

Explanation:

Under Plan I:

Plan I's Earning per share (EPS) = EBIT ÷ Number of shares = $575,000 ÷ 180,000 = $3.19

Under Plan II:

Interest = $2,600,000 × 8% = $208,000

Earning after Interest = EBIT - Interest = $575,000 - $208,000 = $367,000

Plan II's EPS = $367,000 ÷ 130,000 = $2.82

5 0
3 years ago
At December 31, 20X3, before recognizing any depreciation expense for 20X3, X Company has a machine with an original cost of $36
shutvik [7]

Answer:

If X Company uses the units of production method for calculating depreciation, depreciation expense in 20X3 will be (rounded):

$45000

Explanation:

Cost                360000  

Accum. Depre 90000  

Usefull life         7  

   

Produce 1 20000  

Produce 2 10000  

Produce 3 50000  

                80000  

   

Deprec=cost/unit    

   

Depre=360000/80000    

Depre= 4,5  

   

Produce 2012  20000 4,5 90000

Produce 2013  10000 4,5 45000

Produce rest   50000 4,5 225000

             80000 4,5 360000

7 0
3 years ago
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