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Bas_tet [7]
3 years ago
11

How did the appreciation of the U.S. dollar and depreciation of the yuan affect the timing andmagnitude of the Asian currency cr

isis? What is moral hazard and how did it help cause the Asian currency crisis?
Business
1 answer:
UkoKoshka [18]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1) Export Competitiveness

2) Moral hazard means lack of incentive to guard against risk where one is protected from its consequences.

3) Government guarantees

Explanation:

1) The appreciation of the U.S. dollar and depreciation of the yuan worked as a catalyst to speed up the Asian currency crisis as the exports were slowed down causing a decline in growth which also gives the motivation to the central bank to devalue their currency more in order to achieve export competitiveness to boost up the exports and economy.

2) The moral hazard in this case was the government guarantees, both implicit and explicit.

3) The moral hazard of government guarantees motivates the investors to invest taking risky adventures since regulations were also lenient, and finance was available. We see over investments backed by the inflated land prices. After that it was the final nail in the coffin when the local investors dump their local currencies in order to buy foreign currencies whereas foreign loans were no longer competitive.  

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5,000 7.5 percent coupon bonds outstanding, $1,000 par value, 19 years to maturity, selling for 105 percent of par; the bonds ma
vitfil [10]

Answer:

10.53%

Explanation:

WACC = wE*rE + wP*rP + wD*rD(1-tax)

<u>Market values;</u>

Debt = 1.05 *5,000*1000 = 5,250,000

Preferred stock = 15,500 *107 = 1,658,500

Common equity = 105,000 *63 = 6,615,000

Total market value = 13,523,500

wE = 6,615,000/ 13,523,500 = 0.4891

wP= 1,658,500/13,523,500 = 0.1226

wD = 5,250,000/13,523,500 = 0.3882

<u>Cost of capital;</u>

Cost of common equity, rE using CAPM;

rE = 0.06 + (1.13*0.09) = 0.1617

rE = 16.17%

Cost of preferred stock = 6%

Cost of debt

using a financial calculator, input the following; N= 38, PV = -1050, PMT = 37.5,

FV =1000, then CPT I/Y = 3.51% . So annual rate = 3.51% *2 = 7.02%

WACC = (0.4891*0.1617) +(0.1226* 0.06) + [0.3882 *0.0702(1-0.31)]

WACC = 0.0791 + 0.007356 + 0.0188

WACC = 0.1053 or 10.53%

4 0
3 years ago
Does GAAP routinely require companies to disclosure forecasts of financial variables to external users? Indicate yes or no and e
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

No, they don´t.

Explanation:

Forecast is not required by GAAP, as the <u>Relevance</u> and the <u>Faithful</u> <u>Representation</u> are concepts that are not compatible with data projection.  Forecast implies estimates, and subjective interpretations that do not fulfill financial statements aim and are difficult to verify.

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3 years ago
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kari74 [83]

Answer:

Explanation:

NB: please check the attached files for workings.

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Rodgers Company gathered the following reconciling information in preparing its May bank reconciliation. Calculate the adjusted
atroni [7]

Answer:

c. $4,055

Explanation:

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Answer:

a i

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