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alekssr [168]
3 years ago
13

Anchor Company purchased a manufacturing machine with a list price of $85,000 and received a 2% cash discount on the purchase. T

he machine was delivered under terms FOB shipping point, and freight costs amounted to $2,200. Anchor paid $3,000 to have the machine installed and tested. Insurance costs to protect the asset from fire and theft amounted to $3,800 for the first year of operations. Based on this information, the amount of cost recorded in the asset account would be:
Business
1 answer:
Naily [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The initial cost of manufacturing machine to be capitalized as per International Accounting Standard 16 is $88,500.

Explanation:

IAS-16 states that the initial cost should include the Purchase Price Plus all the costs necessary to bring the asset into working condition. The discount should be deducted. Freight Charges and Installation Costs are directly attributable costs, these costs must be incurred to bring it to working condition. On the other hand, insurance is not required to make machine run so this cost should be written-off to Profit or Loss Statements as soon as incurred.

Purchase Price = 85,000 * .98 = $83,300

Add:               Freight Charges =     2,200

                      Installation Cost =     3,000

          Cost To Be Capitalized = $88,500

Thanks!                        

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The risk that a central bank will not make the necessary transfer of foreign currency to complete a currency settlement is known
motikmotik

Answer:

Herstatt.

Explanation:

The risk that a central bank will not make the necessary transfer of foreign currency to complete a currency settlement is known as herstatt risk.

Herstatt risk is also known as cross-settlement risk or settlement risk. It was named after Bankaus Herstatt (a German bank) that failed in June 1974 when it was supposed to settle a contract for a payment received from the other party and consequently, amounting to a loss of about $602,000,000.

Hence, is mainly a loss in foreign exchange transactions where a party defaults after receiving money from another.

4 0
3 years ago
Rank the following instruments in terms of credit risk. In your rankings, use 1 for the greatest credit risk and 4 for the small
bija089 [108]

Answer:

a. A Ba1 corporate bond <u>2 (not investment grade)</u>

b. A ten-year BBB- corporate bond with a YTM of 7% <u>3 (medium risk but still investment grade)</u>

c. A secured loan from Argosy Gaming, which is a B- rated firm <u>4 (less risky since it is backed by a collateral)</u>

d. A senior subordinated bond from Argosy Gaming <u>1 (highest risk)</u>

Explanation:

There are two major bond rating agencies in the US: Moody's and Standard & Poor's.

Their rankings are very similar, although the letters vary a little:

AAA: safest

AA: low risk

A: low risk

BBB: medium risk

BB: a little bit more riskier

B: risky

CCC: very high risk

CC: even riskier

C: riskiest

D: junk, in default

8 0
3 years ago
ABC Corporation raised capital through an offering of equity securities. Which component of the balance sheet has changed as a r
Stels [109]

Answer:

Share capital in the shareholders equity section

Explanation:

The balance sheet is structured according to the accounting formulae

Asset = Liabilities + Owners Equity

When a company raises capita by the issuing of securities or is referred to as share capital.

The securities issued are common stock or preferred stock.

There is a maximum amount that a company can raise from the sale of shares and this is called authorised share capital.

Share capital is a line item that is reported under Owner equity section of the balance sheet.

8 0
3 years ago
7) You put 20% down on a home with a purchase price of $250,000. The down payment is thus $50,000, leaving a balance owed of $20
Alexxandr [17]

Answer:

=$11,439.96(Approx)

Explanation:

Consider the following calculations

Present value of annuity=Annuity[1-(1+interest rate)^-time period]/rate

200,000=Annuity[1-(1.0391)^-30]/0.0391

200,000=Annuity*17.48257135

Annuity=200,000/17.48257135

=$11,439.96(Approx)

4 0
3 years ago
A small business produces a single product and reports the following​ data: Sales price ​$8.50 per unit Variable cost ​$5.25 per
ozzi

Answer:

The correct answer is Decrease by $5,500.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

First we calculate the previous operating income, by using following formula:

Previous operating income = ($8.5 - $5.25) × 10,000 units - $22,000

= $10,500

Now, we will calculate the current operating income by using following formula:

New operating income = ($7.5 - $5.25) 12,000  units - $22,000

= $5,000

So, the change in operating income can be calculated as

Change in operating income = New operating income - Previous operating income

= $5,000 - $10,500

= -$5,500 ( Negative shows Decrease)

= Decrease by $5,500.

8 0
3 years ago
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