Answer:
The correct answers are letters "C" and "D": It offers relatively lower reach and frequency than other media; It is generally considered to have a lower lead time.
Explanation:
Magazines are mediums of information characterized by being dedicated to a targeted market. This is because magazines are printed over certain specific matters such as<em> auto magazines, cooking, food, and beverage magazines </em>or <em>computer and electronics magazines.</em>
<em>Disadvantages of magazines imply the information portrayed might not be updated since most of them are available for sale periodically -e.g. once a week, month- making an advertisement difficult to be kept up. This situation also means that magazines frequency is lower compared to other media such as newspapers whose reach is higher as well.</em>
Answer:
$10,900
Explanation:
The computation of net operating income (loss) for the month under variable costing is shown below:-
Sales = Selling price × Units sold
= $116 × 8,600
= $997,600
Variable cost = (Direct material + Direct labor + Variable manufacturing overhead + Variable selling and administrative expenses) × Units sold
= ($19 + $61 + $7 + $11) × 8,600
= $98 × 8,600
= $842,800
Contribution Margin = Sales - Variable cost
= $997,600 - $842,800
= $154,800
Fixed cost = Fixed manufacturing overhead + Fixed selling and administrative expense
= $135,000 + $8,900
= $143,900
Net operating income = Contribution Margin - Fixed cost
= $154,800 - $143,900
= $10,900
Therefore for computing the net operating income we simply applied the above formula.
Answer:
Explanation:
Accounts payable is included in the current liability according to international financial reporting standards (IFRS). Although the construction loan was actually payable at year-end, if the company has both the willingness and ability to refinance with long-term debt, the $100,000 construction loan may be included at year-end in long-term liabilities. Therefore, current liabilities of $30,000 and long-term liabilities of $100,000 should be reported on the balance sheet.
The extracts of the statement of financial positions are given below:
Non-current liabilities:
Refinanced loan $100,000
Current liabilities:
Accounts payable $ 30,000
Answer:
The correct answer is 8.679%.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Face value (F) = $1,000
Bond value (B)= $955
Time (t) = 18 years
Yield (r) = 9.2%
First we calculate the coupon payment:
Let coupon payment = C
then,
B = C × 
By putting the value, we get
$955 = C× 
$955 = C × 8.64 + 205.11
C = 86.79
So, Coupon Rate = Coupon Payment ÷ Face value
= 86.79 ÷ 1000
= 0.08679
= 8.679%
Answer:
Explanation:
a.)
Dividend discount model(DDM) is used to determine the price of a stock.
The formula is as follows;
Price ;P0 = D1 /(r-g)
D1 = Dividend in year 1
r = capitalization rate or required rate of return
g = dividend growth rate
P0 = 8/( 0.10-0.05)
P0 = 160.
The price of the Fi corporation's stock is therefore $160.
b.)
Use the formula that shows the relationship between ROE , retention rate and growth rate. It's as follows;
g = ROE *b
g = growth rate
b = retention rate
Given Earnings per Share (EPS) = $12 and dividend = $8, find dividend payout ratio first.
retention ratio = (1 -dividend payout ratio)
dividend payout ratio = 8/12 = 0.667 or 66.7%
retention ratio ; b = (1 -0.667)
b = 0.333 or 33.3%
Plug it in the formula;
0.05 = ROE * 0.333
ROE = 0.05/0.333
ROE = 0.15 or 15%
c.)
This question is asking for the Present Value of Growth Opportunity (PVGO)
The formula is as follows;
PVGO = Price - EPS1 /r
Price = $160 (from part a)
Expected earnings per share (EPS) = $12
required rate of return(capitalization rate) ; r = 10% or 0.10 as a decimal
PVGO = 160 - 12/0.10
PVGO = 160 -120
PVGO = $40
Therefore, the market is paying $40 per share for growth opportunities.
