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amid [387]
4 years ago
10

Compare and contrast anticipatory and response-based business models. Why has responsiveness become popular in supply chain coll

aborations?
Business
1 answer:
Anon25 [30]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Forecast and planning

Explanation:

An anticipatory model is a model under which market forecast determines the production of products by the manufacturer, and purchases by retailers also determined by forecasts and promotional plans. Since the forecasts are wrong most of the times, anticipatory model usually leads to differences in the actual production of the firms and what they initially planned to produce.  

Anticipatory Model is a risky model because anticipation of future events always determines the work to do by the firm.

On the contrary, the Responsive Business Model does not depend on forecasts, but ensure that what to be done are adequately planned and information among firms in the supply chain are properly exchanged. This makes the model not to be risky and ensure doing more than what has already been planned is avoided. Therefore, the aim of the responsive model which also known as Pull Model is to eliminate reliance on forecast.  

The major reason the Responsive Model has become popular in supply chain collaborations is that it allows for the customization of products on smaller orders by customers.  However, the Anticipatory Model does not give customers any choice or power but to buy or not buy.

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Which best explains what a credit score represents? A) A number expressing your yearly income. B) A numerical rating that shows
Juli2301 [7.4K]
<span>D) A numerical rating that expresses how likely you are to repay your debts.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Suppose the Simmons Co's common stock has a beta of 1.37, the risk-free rate is 3.4 percent, and the market risk premium is 8.2
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer: 11.65%

Explanation:

First find cost of equity using CAPM:

= Risk free rate + Beta * Market risk premium

= 3.4% + 1.37 * 8.2%

= 14.6%

Debt to equity = 0.45

This means that weight of debt is:

= 0.45 / (1 + 0.45)

= 31.03%

Weight of equity:

= 1 - 31.03%

= 68.97%

WACC = (Weight of equity * cost of equity) + (weight of debt * cost of debt * (1 - tax))

= (68.97% * 14.6%) + (31.03% * 7.6% * (1 - 34%))

= 11.63%

= 11.65% as per options

5 0
3 years ago
How much of the difference between the HSIF portfolio and the benchmark portfolio in the previous question is related to the ass
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3 0
3 years ago
Paul's Dogs Corp. has 9 percent coupon bonds making annual payments with a YTM of 8.5 percent. The current yield on these bonds
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

4.17 years

Explanation:

For Bond,

Let's take Bond Par Value = $1,000

Coupon Rate = 9%

YTM = 8.5%

Current Yield = Annual Dividend/Current Price

0.0885 = 90/Bond Price

Bond Price = $1,016.95

Calculating Time left to Maturity,

Using TVM Calculation,

T = [FV = 1000, PV = 1016.95, PMT = 90, I = 0.085]

T = 4.17 years

So,

Time left to Maturity = 4.17 years

4 0
4 years ago
If the Fed sells treasury bonds, what happens? Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys
andre [41]

Answer:

c Financial institutions purchase the bonds, which removes money from the system and the interest rate rises.

Explanation:

The Fed engages in various strategies to control the amount of money in the economy. On each strategy is the Open Market Operations (OMO) where the Fed regulates cash in circulation by selling or buying of securities.

When the Fed sells treasury bonds they want to mop up cash in the economy and reduce money supply.

As financial institutions purchase the bonds the level of liquidity or cash in the economy reduces.

This will push interest rates up as financial institutions have less cash to lend to customers.

4 0
3 years ago
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