Answer:
The 95% confidence interval for the average number of years until the first major repair is (3.1, 3.5).
Step-by-step explanation:
The (1 - <em>α</em>)% confidence interval for the average using the finite correction factor is:
The information provided is:
The critical value of <em>z</em> for 95% confidence level is,
<em>z</em> = 1.96
Compute the 95% confidence interval for the average number of years until the first major repair as follows:
Thus, the 95% confidence interval for the average number of years until the first major repair is (3.1, 3.5).
Answer:
For the interpretation we consider a value for d small is is between 0-0.2, medium if is between 0.2-0.8 and large if is higher than 0.8.
And on this case 1.713>0.8 so we have a large effect size
This value of d=1.713 are telling to us that the two groups differ by 1.713 standard deviation and we will have a significant difference between the two means.
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The Effect size is a "quantitative measure of the magnitude of the experimenter effect. "
The Cohen's d effect size is given by the following formula:
Solution to the problem
And for this case we can assume:
the mean for females
the mean for males
represent the deviations for both groups
And if we replace we got:
For the interpretation we consider a value for d small is is between 0-0.2, medium if is between 0.2-0.8 and large if is higher than 0.8.
And on this case 1.713>0.8 so we have a large effect size
This value of d=1.713 are telling to us that the two groups differ by 1.713 standard deviation and we will have a significant difference between the two means.
Answer:
4^18
Step-by-step explanation:
4^18 = 2^36
(4^−3)^−6? = 2^36
Please visit: https://youtu.be/_0Ft9HdNg5c
Thanks.
Answer:
3.5325
Step-by-step explanation:
V = 3.14*(.75^2)(2)
You divide the diameter by 2 to get the radius which is 1.5/2 =.75
r=.75
h=2
and you use the equation for volume of cylinder which is V = pi x radius squared x height
We can first add up the cards so we know how many we have in all:
16 + 16 + 18 = 50 cards
We can do this a little bit easier if we get the "16"-cards in one number total.
16 + 16 = 32
= 32 x 2 =
50 x 2
= 64 : 2 = 32 %
100
We did just divide the % of two types cards on 2, so we get the %-chance of 1 type card.
I am not quite sure, but I think that 32 % is the correct answer.
