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kvasek [131]
3 years ago
5

For each of the following accounts used by a retail business, determine its classification: asset, contra-asset, liability, reve

nue, contra-revenue, or expense.
a. Sales Discounts
b. Freight-Out
c. Accumulated Depreciation
Business
1 answer:
uysha [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Classification for each of the following account is given below.

a. Sales Discounts - Sales discount is classified as contra revenue account.  These type of accounts has debit balance.

b. Freight-Out - It is an expense account. These type of accounts has debit balance.

c. Accumulated Depreciation - This can be classified as contra depreciation account. This account has credit balance.

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A small clothing company plans to sell a new line of shirts. The selling price will be $35 per shirt. The labor costs will be $5
RideAnS [48]

Answer:

The correct answer is 4,000 shirts.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows:

Selling price = $35

Labor cost = $5

Cost of material = $10

So, Contribution margin amount = $35 - $5 - $10 = $20

And fixed cost = $60,000 + $20,000 = $80,000

So, we can calculate the breakeven units by using following formula:

Breakeven units = Fixed cost ÷ Contribution margin

= $80,000 ÷ $20

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7 0
3 years ago
Your lease calls for payments of $500 at the end of each month for the next 12 months. Now your landlord offers you a new 1-year
Mamont248 [21]

Answer:

Change in Net worth= $133.62

Explanation:

The two lease options require  that the leasee ( the tenant) commit himself to pay a series of equal amount of rent installment at the different time period in the future.

These series of equal periodic cash flows occurring in the future  are called annuities.  

To have a meaningful comparison, the two annuities should be compared based on their present values. So we compute the present value of the two using the formula below:

Present Value (PV) =( A × (1- (1+r)^(-n))/r

Option 1:Current lease

PV = 500 × 1-(1+0.05)^(12)

    = 500 ×  8.863251636

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Option 2: New Offer

This will be done in two steps:

PV of lease in year 3

PV =700 × (1-(1+0.05)^(-9))

     = 700 × 7.107821676

     =4,975.47

PV of lease in year 0

PV = FV × (1+r)^(-3)

     =4,975.47 × 0.8638

     =$4,298.00

My net worth would change by the amount of the difference between the two PV of the two annuities:

Difference in PV = $4,431.62-$4,298.00

      Change in Net worth= $133.62

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Answer:

the labor efficiency variance for the month is $23,256 Favorable.

Explanation:

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                                          =  (7,600 × $13.60) - ((950 × 9.8) × $13.60)

                                          =  (7,600 × $13.60) - (9.310 × $13.60)

                                          = $23,256 Favorable

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