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Nutka1998 [239]
3 years ago
15

The lines on a 2 cup liquid measuring cup divide each cup into eighths. If you measure 1 cups of water, between

Mathematics
2 answers:
Lemur [1.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The 4rth line and 5th line

Step-by-step explanation:

This 2 cup measuring cup with 8 division lines

8th line ------    2 cups

7th line ------

6th line ------

5th line -----

4th line -----     at this line 1 cup

3rd line -----

2nd line ----

1st line  ----

Alex Ar [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1 cup is between the 7th and 9th lines from the bottom.

Step-by-step explanation:

The bottom of the cup has no line and corresponds to 0 eights.

1st line up: 1/8 cup  

2nd line up: 2/8 cup    this is also called 1/4 cup

3rd line up: 3/8 cup

4th line up: 4/8 cup     this is also called 1/2 cup

5th line up: 5/8 cup

6th line up: 6/8 cup     this is also called 3/4 cup

7th line up: 7/8 cup

8th line up: 8/8 cup     this is also called 1 cup

9th line up: 9/8 cup

10th line up: 10/8 cup    this is also called 1 1/4 cup

11th line up: 1 3/8 cup

12th line up: 1 4/8 cup     this is also called 1 1/2 cup

13th line up: 1 5/8 cup

14th line up: 1 6/8 cup    this is also called 1 3/4 cup

15th line up: 1 7/8 cup

16th line up: 1 8/8 cup    this is also called 2 cups

1 cup is between the 7th and 9th lines from the bottom.

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Evaluate the expression a•b for a =24 and b=8
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\huge\text{Hey there!}


\mathsf{a\times b}}

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\huge\textbf{Therefore, your answer should be:}

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lutik1710 [3]

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a) 39 b) 17

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3 years ago
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The probability of winning a certain lottery is 1/77076 for people who play 908 times find the mean number of wins
Alex73 [517]

The mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct

<h3><u>Solution:</u></h3>

Given that , The probability of winning a certain lottery is \frac{1}{77076} for people who play 908 times

We have to find the mean number of wins

\text { The probability of winning a lottery }=\frac{1}{77076}

Assume that a procedure yields a binomial distribution with a trial repeated n times.

Use the binomial probability formula to find the probability of x successes given the probability p of success on a single trial.

n=908, \text { probability } \mathrm{p}=\frac{1}{77076}

\text { Then, binomial mean }=n \times p

\begin{array}{l}{\mu=908 \times \frac{1}{77076}} \\\\ {\mu=\frac{908}{77076}} \\\\ {\mu=0.01178}\end{array}

Hence, the mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct.

4 0
3 years ago
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