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Nady [450]
3 years ago
12

f interest rates rise but the quantity of loanable funds demanded and supplies remains constant, this implies that Group of answ

er choices the demand for loanable funds decreased while the supply increased. both the demand and the supply of loanable funds increased. both the demand and the supply of loanable funds decreased. the demand and the supply of loanable funds both remained the same. the demand for loanable funds increased while the supply decreased..
Business
1 answer:
babymother [125]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The demand and the supply of loanable funds both remained the same.

Explanation:

If the interest rates rise, but both demand and supply of loanable funds remanin constant, this means that demand and supply remained the same.

This would be a problem in the real world, because when interest rates rise, what should happen is that the supply of funds rise, while demand falls, because a rise in interest rates makes investment more expensive since interset rates are simply the price of the loanable funds.

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MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
the study of the emperors dead body to determine the cause of julius ceasars death is an example of ???
Mama L [17]

without context this sounds like the answer is forensic science.

5 0
3 years ago
In 1919, henry ford was sued because:
Lostsunrise [7]
The appropriate response is A. Henry Ford also then sued the Chicago Tribune for criticizing the grounds that it called him an uninformed revolutionary. In court, the guard lawyer has chosen to show Ford's obliviousness and absence of patriotism by posting essential American history inquiries. The vehicle head honcho reliably missed these inquiries, and court transcripts of his nonsense wound up plainly well known perusing at the time.
8 0
3 years ago
A machine can be purchased for $202,000 and used for five years, yielding the following net incomes. In projecting net incomes,
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

2.36 years

Explanation:

Payback calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from it cumulative cash flows.

To derive cash flows from net income, depreciation expenses should be added to net income.

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2 / 5 = 0.4

Deprecation expense in year 1 = 0.4 x $202,000 = $80,800

Book value in year 2 = $202,000 - $80,800 = $121,200

Deprecation expense in year 2 = 0.4 x $121,200 = $48,480

Book value in year 3 = $121,200 - $48,480 = $72,720

Deprecation expense in year 3 = 0.4 x $72,720 = $29,088

Book value in year 4 = $72,720 - $29,088 = $43,632

Deprecation expense in year 4 = $43,632 x 0.4 = $17,452.80

Book value in year 5 = $43,632 x 0.4 - $17,452.80 = $26,179.20

Deprecation expense in year 5 = $26,179.20 x 0.4 = $10,471.68

Cash flow in year 1 = $18,000 +  $80,800 = $98,800

Cash flow in year 2 = $25,000 + $48,480 = $73,480

Cash flow in year 3 = $53,000  + $29,088 = $82,088

Cash flow in year 4 = $58,000  + $17,452.80 = $75,452.80

Cash flow in year 5 = $108,000 + $10,471.68 = $118,471.68

Please check the attached image for how the payback period was calculated

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Professor Bai is worried about his job security, and has started to venture into a new startup. Perhaps surprisingly, he is able
zvonat [6]

Answer:

Explanation:

Price is sum of:

1. Present value of expected dividend payments during 1-4 years;

2. Present value of the expected market price at the end of the fourth year based on growth at 5%.

Present value of expected dividend payments during 1-4 years:

PV1 = 3*(1+0.30)*0.8929 = 3.90*0.8929 = $3.482

*0.8929 = 1/1.12

PV2 = 3.90*1.30*0.7972 = 5.07*0.7972 = $4.042

PV3 = 5.07*1.30*0.7118 = 6.591*0.7118 = $4.691

PV4 = 6.591*1.30*0.6355 = 8.5683*0.6355 = $5.445

Total = $17.661

Present value of the expected market price at the end of the fourth year:

Market price of the share at the end = 5th year dividend/(Required rate of return - growth rate)

5th year dividend = $8.5683*(1+growth rate) = $8.5683*(1+0.05) = $9

Market price of the share at the end = $9/(0.12-0.05) = $128.57

Present value of $128.57 is 128.57*0.6355(present value interest factor for year 4) = $81.7

So the price of share is $17.661+$81.7 = $99.37

8 0
3 years ago
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