Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
A) The probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.
B) The probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.
C) The probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.
<h2 /><h2><u>How to determine probabilities</u></h2>
Since a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 holes each, to determine A) what is the probability the golfer got zero or one hole -in-one during a single game, B) what is the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game, and C) what is the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game , the following calculations must be performed:
- 1 - 0.12 = 0.88
- 0.88 ^ 17 = 0.1138
- 0.88 ^ 18 = 0.1001
Therefore, the probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.
- 0.88 ^ 18 - 0.12 ^ 2 = X
- 0.0857 = X
Therefore, the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.
- 0.12 ^ 6 x 0.88 ^ 12 = X
- 0.0000000001 = X
Therefore, the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.
Learn more about probabilities in brainly.com/question/25273534
Answer:
He is not correct, the answer is All Real Numbers.
Step-by-step explanation:
When two lines are right on top of each other, the solution set is All Real Numbers that are on both lines because the solution set is the point(s) at which the lines overlap.
Answer:
540
Step-by-step explanation:
3% of 6000 is 180. Multiply that by 3 years and you have your result.
Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
• A line sloping upwards from left to right has a positive slope
• A line sloping downwards from left to right has a negative slope
The line shown here slopes downwards from left to right, hence has a negative slope → B
