Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": One of several products produced from a common input.
Explanation:
Joint products are those manufactured by large companies whose production process is the same at an early stage for all the different products being produced, but at a certain stage, called a split-off, the products begin to have their own characteristics.
Since the products initially come from the same input, the costs are allocated in the bundle. After the split-off, the cost of production is allocated to each type of product.
Answer:
$3.389
Explanation:
Data provided as per the question below
Fixed cost = $300,000
Variable cost = $200,000
Total cost = $500,000
Units produced = 59,000
The computation of variable cost per unit is shown below:-
Variable cost per unit = Variable cost ÷ Units produced
= $200,000 ÷ 59,000
= $3.389
Therefore we applied the above formula.
Hi there
What we need first is the book value of the equipment
The book value is
originally costing - accumulated depreciation
100,000−65,000=35,000
Since the sale price is 40000 and the book value is 35000 This result a gain of 5000 (40000-35000)
Good luck!
Answer:
The correct answer is (B)
Explanation:
Economists are helpful to predict future economic and financial phenomenon’s. In that regard, statistical or mathematical models are considered more appropriate and it is said that they provide better results. In the above scenario, Syd is attempting to construct an economic model for that, the suitable technique to examine the cause and effect to predict the outcomes are mathematical functions. The reason is that mathematical models are more appropriate to predicts cause and effect.
Answer:
Cost of equity = 10.10%
Explanation:
<em>Cost of equity can be ascertained using the dividend valuation model. The model states that the price of a stock is the present value of future dividends discounted at the required rate of return. </em>
Ke=( Do( 1+g)/P ) + g
g- growth rate in dividend, P- price of the stock, Ke- required return, D- dividend payable in now
DATA
D0- (1+g) = 5.05
g- 3.60%
P- 77.75
Note that the D0× (1+g) simply implies the dividend expected in year one, that is one year from now. And this has been given as 5.05 in the question, hence there is no need to apply the growth rate again.
Cost of equity = (5.05/77.75 + 0.036)× 100= 10.095%
Cost of equity = 10.10%
