<span>x=<span>−<span><span>1<span> or </span></span>x</span></span></span>=<span>−<span>3 i think lol</span></span>
We have to calculate the probability of picking a 4 and then a 5 without replacement.
We can express this as the product of the probabilities of two events:
• The probability of picking a 4
,
• The probability of picking a 5, given that a 4 has been retired from the deck.
We have one card in the deck out of fouor cards that is a "4".
Then, the probability of picking a "4" will be:

The probability of picking a "5" will be now equal to one card (the number of 5's in the deck) divided by the number of remaining cards (3 cards):

We then calculate the probabilities of this two events happening in sequence as:

Answer: 1/12
The difference would be subtracting the variables and the dividing the difference by 2
5 cm = 2km
Scale= 5 cm : 200000 cm
= 1 : 40000
a. 1 : 40000 = x : 500000
x = 12.5 cm
b.1 : 40000 = 2 : x
x = 80000 cm
x = 0.8 km
The total profit that is earned is 4512.5
<h3>How to solve for the profit that is earned</h3>
100 - q = 0
q = 100
Maximization is where q = 0
MR = mc
100 - q = 5
such that q = 95
Price would be 100 -0.5(95)
= 100 - 47.5
= 52.5
Profit earned would be
= 95*52.5 -5*95
= 4512.5
Read more on profit maximization here: brainly.com/question/13464288
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