Answer:
3.44%
Explanation:
The computation of the return if sold the fund at the year end is shown below:
= {[Price × (1 - Front End Load) × ((1 + fund increase percentage) -expense ratio)] - price} ÷ price
={[$20 per share × (1 - 5.75%) × ((1 + 11%) - 1.25%)] - 20} ÷ 20
= 3.44%
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct return could come
The following accounts would appear on a schedule of cost of goods manufactured- Depreciation of factory equipment
Explanation:
<u>The cost of goods manufactured (COGM) schedule</u> is used to calculate the cost of all the items produced during a given reporting period.
<u>The cost of good manufactured schedule</u> gives companies an idea about their production cost(i.e whether it is too high or low) in relation to the sales they are making
<u>The formula to calculate the COGM i</u>s:
Add: Direct Materials Used
Add: Direct Labor Used
Add: Manufacturing Overhead
Add: Beginning Work in Process (WIP) Inventory
Deduct: Ending Work in Process (WIP) Inventory
= COGM
U forgot to add the picture
Answer:
To evaluate the choice, we have to calculate the present value of future cash flows and compare it with the cost. We use the following formula
present value = C × [
]
where
C = yearly payments = 75000
i = interest rate = 8%
n = no. of years = 15
put the given values in above equation, we get
Present value = 75000 ×8.559478688
= 641,961
Since the present value of cash flow 641,961 is less than the cost 750,000, I would not recommend it.
If Interest rate = 5%, then:
Do the same procedure as above but take i=5%
Present value = 75000 × 10.37965804
= 778,474
Since the present value of future cash flows 778,474 is greater than the cost 750,000, I would recommend it.