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3 years ago

A machine: A- Makes work easier to do

Physics

2 answers:

Vlad1618 [11]3 years ago

5 0

A: makes work easier to do.

Neporo4naja [7]3 years ago

4 0

A machine can do all the things that is stated above.

Answer: Option D

<u>Explanation:</u>

A machine is a device used to reduce the efforts put by human and to make our life easier so that we can spend our time and energy on some other useful things productively.

Machine reduces the force put by humans and alternatively plans and manages to equilaise the force required. It is also capable of changing the direction or the distance required by the force in a machine.

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Carbon monoxide (CO) _____.

bekas [8.4K]

A. It is a compound made of oxygen and carbon

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A mover loads a crate onto a truck bed 1.6m from the street using a ramp that is 4.6m long. What is a mechanical advantage?

Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

Mechanical advantage = 2.875

Explanation:

Given:

A diagram is shown below for the above scenario.

Length of ramp (Effort arm) = 4.6 m

Height of truck bed ( Resistance length) = 1.6 m

Mechanical advantage (MA) is the ratio of effort arm and resistance length.

So, mechanical advantage is given as,

$MA=\frac{\textrm{Effort arm}}{\textrm{Resistance length}}= \frac{4.6}{1.6}=2.875$

6 0

3 years ago

To practice Problem-Solving Strategy 15.1 Mechanical Waves. Waves on a string are described by the following general equation y(

DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

0.0549 m

Explanation:

Given that

equation y(x,t)=Acos(kx−ωt)

speed v = 8.5 m/s

amplitude A = 5.5*10^−2 m

wavelength λ = 0.5 m

transverse displacement = ?

v = angular frequency / wave number

and

wave number = 2π/ λ

wave number = 2 * 3.142 / 0.5

wave number = 12.568

angular frequency = v k

angular frequency = 8.5 * 12.568

angular frequency = 106.828 rad/sec ~= 107 rad/sec

equation y(x,t)=Acos(kx−ωt)

y(x,t)= 5.5*10^−2 cos(12.568 x−107t)

when x =0 and and t = 0

maximum y(x,t)= 5.5*10^−2 cos(12.568 (0) − 107 (0))

maximum y(x,t)= 5.5*10^−2 m

and when x = x = 1.52 m and t = 0.150 s

y(x,t)= 5.5*10^−2 cos(12.568 (1.52) −107(0.150) )

y(x,t)= 5.5*10^−2 × (0.9986)

y(x,t) = 0.0549 m

so the transverse displacement is 0.0549 m

5 0

3 years ago

A 4 cm diameter "bobber" with a mass of 3 grams floats on a pond. A thin, light fishing line is tied to the bottom of the bobber

Tasya [4]

Answer:

Explanation:

Calculate the volume of the lead

$V=\frac{m}{d}\\\\=\frac{10g}{11.3g'cm^3}$

Now calculate the bouyant force acting on the lead

$F_L = Vpg$

$F_L=(\frac{10g}{11.3g/cm^3} )(1g/cm^3)(9.8m/s^2)\\\\=8.673\times 10^{-3}N$

This force will act in upward direction

Gravitational force on the lead due to its mass will act in downward direction

Hence the difference of this two force

$T=mg-F_L\\\\=(10\times10^{-3}kg(9.8m/s^2)-8.673\times 10^{-3}\\\\=8.933\times10^{-3}N$

If V is the volume submerged in the water then bouyant force on the bobber is

$F_B=V'pg$

Equate bouyant force with the tension and gravitational force

$F_B=T_mg\\\\V'pg=\frac{(8.933\times10^{-2}N)+mg}{pg} \\\\V'=\frac{(8.933\times10^{-2}N)+mg}{pg}$

Now Total volume of bobble is

$\frac{V'}{V^B} =\frac{\frac{(8.933\times10^{-2})+Mg}{pg} }{\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3 }\times100\\\\=\frac{\frac{(8.933\times10^{-2})+(3)(9.8)}{(1000)(9.8)} }{\frac{4}{3} \pi (4.0\times10^{-2})^3 }\times100\\\\$

= $\large\boxed{4.52 \%}$

7 0

3 years ago

If you place a paper clip very close to a magnet, the paper clip

Alik [6]

The answer is “D. all of the above”!

Metal from the paper clip is attracted to the magnet, so it will naturally move toward and stick to the magnet. This will cause the paper clip to temporarily become a magnet for other metals. I hope this helped!

7 0

2 years ago