Answer:
Loss of $500
Explanation:
Given that
Stock price = 123
Strike price = 125
Premium price = 5
Recall that
Long call profit = (MAX (stock price - strike price, 0) - premium per share
Thus,
Long call profit = Max [0, ($123 - $125)(100)] - $500
= - $500.
Therefore, the negative sign in front indicates a loss of $500
Answer:
An expense account normally has a debit balance.
Answer:
Basis risk for the future contract is 0.65%
Explanation:
Basis risk is the difference in spot price and future price of an hedged asset. It is the difference between the price price of an hedged asset and price of the asset serving as the hedge.
Basis risk = Futures price of contract − Spot price of hedged asset
Basis Risk = Future IMM index - Spot IMM index
Basis risk = 95.75% - 95.10%
Basis risk = 0.65%
Answer:
Borrowed amount of $2,500
Explanation:
The computation is shown below;
The Total available balance is
= Beginning balance + Receipts - Disbursements
= $12,000 + $30,000 - $34,500
= $7,500
As the cash should be maintained of $10,000
So,
The amount to be borrowed is
= $10,000 - $7500
= $2,500
Answer:
B)tie-in sales.
Explanation:
Theses are the options for the question;
A. misrepresentation.
B. tie-in sales.
C. reciprocity.
D. price discrimination.
E. kickbacks
From the question, we are informed about a statement ""I'll let you sell the Harley-Davidson designer clothes only if you'll also sell a new line of clothes designed by Paula Abdul, too."
This statement made by a salesperson to a specialty retailer is potentially an example of tie- sales and may be in violation of the Clayton Act prohibition if the action substantially lessens competition.
It should be noted that tie - in sales in finance means that when a cusumer buys a goods he/she must buy the other product, it simply means the products are tied, and this is opposite of Clayton Act which was set up to bring end to transactions that can lead to monopolies.
