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Airida [17]
3 years ago
14

At the prepurchase stage of the consumer purchase decision process:

Business
1 answer:
olga2289 [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": advertising is more effective than personal selling.

Explanation:

The purchase process could be classified in three stages: <em>prepurchase stage, purchase stage, </em>and <em>postpurchase stage</em>. In the prepurchase stage, consumers can use marketing as a source to find out the product or service they are looking for exists. Individual selling might not be as effective since clients without do not have much information at this stage about the brand, where to locate the product and its main features.

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____ is a short-term debt instrument issued only by well-known, creditworthy firms and is normally issued to provide liquidity o
monitta

Answer:

Commercial Paper.

Explanation:

A commercial Paper is an unsecured and negotiable money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. Are issued by companies to raise short term funds for meeting working capital requirements.

Benefits to the issuer:

-low interest expenses

-access to short term funding

-flexibility and liquidity

-investor recognition

-ease and low cost of establishment

-no collaterals

Benefits to the investor:

-higher yield

-portfolio diversification

-flexibility

-liquidity

4 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of the current year, Sandy Brewer had a zero basis in her 38 shares of stock in Lindlee, an S corporation, a ze
Alona [7]

Answer:

As in her worthless note,Sandy has a zero adjusted basis. Her bad debt deduction is Nil according to Section 166 (b).

Section 166(g)(1) states that her capital loss realized on the deemed sale of this stoke is also nil because of zero adjusted basis in her worthless stock.

According to Reg. Sec.1.1366-2(a)(5) if all of her stock is disposed by an S corporation shareholder and loss carryforward attributable to the Section 1366 (d) basis. Limitaitons are permanently disaalowed.

Hence, her $7,400 ordinary loss carryforward can never be deducted by Sandy.

Sandy has no 2012 tax consequences from worthlessness of her Lindlee investments

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pets Inc. makes 2 products, dog collars and cat collars. Each passes through the cutting machine, which is the binding constrain
maks197457 [2]

Answer:

Dog Collar 10,000 units

Cat Collar 15,000 units

Explanation:

We have only constraint of 2,000 hours on the cutting machine.

First we will calculate the Contribution margin per hour

Contribution margin per hour = Contribution margin per unit / Numbers of hours required per unit

Dog Collar = $10 / (6/60)hours = 10 / 0.1 = $100 per hour

Cat Collar = $8 / (4/60) hours = $120 per hour

Pets Inc. will make Cat collar more than dog

Hours required for 15,000 unit of Cat Collar = 15000 x 4 / 60 = 1,000 hours

Hours for Dog Collars = 2,000 - 1000 = 1000 hour

Unit of Dog Collar = 1000 hours / (6/60) = 10,000 units

5 0
3 years ago
Why is doing timely reconciliations a key part of internal control activities?<br> It ensures that
kati45 [8]

Answer:

It ensures that the Effective internal control reduces the risk of asset loss, and helps ensure that plan information is complete and accurate, financial statements are reliable, and the plan's operations are conducted in accordance with the provisions of applicable laws and regulations. ... Why internal control is important to your plan.

3 0
3 years ago
Net interest margin—often referred to as spread—is the difference between the rate banks pay on deposits and the rate they charg
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

(a) P(X\:>\:5.40)=0.9938

(b) P(X\:

(c) X=4.975 percent

Explanation:

(a) Find the z-value that corresponds to 5.40 percent

.Z=\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}

Z=\frac{5.40-4.15}{0.5}

Z=\frac{1.25}{0.5}=2.5

Hence the net interest margin of 5.40 percent is 2.5 standard deviation above the mean.

The area to the left of 2.5 from the standard normal distribution table is 0.9938.The probability that a randomly selected U.S. bank will have a net interest margin that exceeds 5.40 percent is 1-0.9938=0.0062

(b) The z-value that corresponds to 4.40 percent is Z=\frac{4.40-4.15}{0.5}=0.5The net interest margin of 4.40 percent is 0.5 standard deviation above the mean.

Using the normal distribution table, the area under the curve to the left of 0.5 is 0.6915

Therefore the probability that a randomly selected U.S. bank will have a net interest margin less than 4.40 percent is 0.6915

(c)  The z-value that corresponds to 95% which is 1.65

We substitute the 1.65 into the formula and solve for X.1.65=\frac{X-4.15}{0.5}

1.65\times 0.5=X-4.150.825=X-4.15

0.825+4.15=X

4.975=X

A bank that wants its net interest margin to be less than the net interest margins of 95 percent of all U.S. banks should set its net interest margin to 4.975 percent.

6 0
3 years ago
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