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yan [13]
3 years ago
12

Ziebart Corp.'s EBITDA last year was $350,000 ( = EBIT + depreciation + amortization), its interest charges were $9,500, it had

to repay $26,000 of long-term debt, and it had to make a payment of $17,400 under a long-term lease. The firm had no amortization charges. What was the EBITDA coverage ratio?
Business
1 answer:
beks73 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

EBITDA Coverage Ratio = 6.95

Explanation:

Earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization coverage ratio measures the company's ability to pay the debt, interest, and lease with the net income before interest and taxes. The formula of EBITDA coverage ratio is as follows:

EBITDA Coverage Ratio = \frac{EBITDA + Lease Payments}{Interest Payments + Principal Repayments + Lease Payments}

Given,

EBITDA = EBIT + depreciation + amortization = $350,000

Long-term lease payments = $17,400

Interest expenses = $9,500

Repayment of debt = $26,000

Therefore,

EBITDA Coverage Ratio = \frac{350,000 + 17,400}{9,500 + 26,000 + 17,400}

or, EBITDA Coverage Ratio = \frac{367,400}{52,900}

Hence, EBITDA Coverage Ratio = 6.95

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The first paragraph or part of a business letter is the
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

introduction

Explanation:

I don't know how to explain

5 0
3 years ago
gvWegmans Bakery produces cheese cake for sale. The bakery which operates 5 days per week and 52 weeks per year can produce cake
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

(a) the optimal production run quantity (Q) = 633

(b) the total annual inventory cost (AHC AOC)  = $ 3,162.28

(c) the optimal number of production runs per year = 7

(d) The run length (production run time) = 16 days

Explanation:

(a) the optimal production run quantity (Q).

optimal production run quantity = √(2×Annual Demand×Setup Costs) / Holding Costs

                                                      = √(2×4000×$250)/ $5

                                                      = 633

(b) the total annual inventory cost (AHC AOC).

total annual inventory cost = Setup Costs + Holding Costs

                                            = 4,000/633×$250+633/2×$5

                                            = $1,579.78+$1,582.50

                                            = $ 3,162.28

(c) the optimal number of production runs per year.

number of production runs per year = Total Demand / optimal production run quantity

                                                            = 4,000/633

                                                            = 7

(d) The run length (production run time).

production run time = optimal production run quantity / produce

                                 = 633 / 40 cakes

                                 = 16 days

8 0
4 years ago
A company used straight-line depreciation for an item of equipment that cost $15,350, had a salvage value of $3,200 and a six-ye
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

The correct answer is $2,580.

Explanation:

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($15,350 - $3,200) / 6 years = $2,025 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation at Year 3 = $2,025 x 3 = $6,075

Net book value (NBV) becomes $15,350 - $6,075 = $9,275

New depreciation is ($9,275 - $1,535) / 3 years = $2,580 yearly depreciation expenses

7 0
3 years ago
Consider that a company bought a machine for 72,540 dollars. This equipment is assumed to have a life of 15 years and a salvage
pochemuha

Answer:

58,350 dollars

Explanation:

In straight line depreciation, we calculate annual depreciation by using the formula shown below:

Annual Depreciation = \frac{Cost - Salvage}{Useful Life}

Given,

Cost is 72,540

Salvage Value is 1590

Useful Life = 15 years

We have:

Annual Depreciation = 72540-1590/15 = 4730

At end of Year 3, the total depreciation would be:

4730 * 3 = 14,190

The remaining value of the item would be:

Cost - Total Depn for 3 years

72,540 - 14,190

= 58,350 dollars

8 0
4 years ago
The following data pertain to Dakota Division's most recent year of operations.
Kisachek [45]

Answer:

The Dakota Division's sales margin, capital turnover, and return on investment for the year is 7.40% , 4.60 times and 34% respectively

Explanation:

The computations are shown below:

1. For sales margin :

Margin = Income ÷ Sales × 100

= $4,250,000 ÷ $57,500,000 × 100

= 7.40%

2. For turnover:

Turnover = Sales ÷ Average invested capital

= $57,500,000 ÷ $12,500,000

= 4.60 times

3. For Return on investment:

Return on investment = Income ÷ Average invested capital × 100

= $4,250,000 ÷ $12,500,000  × 100

= 34%

8 0
4 years ago
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