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4 years ago

How many solutions does the system have?

Mathematics

1 answer:

umka21 [38]4 years ago

3 0

One solution

<h2>Explanation:</h2>

For a system of linear equations in two variables, we could have three possible cases:

<h3>Case 1. No solution.</h3>

This happens when the lines are parallel and have different y-intercepts.

<h3>Case 2. One solution.</h3>

This happens when the lines intersect at a single point.

<h3>Case 1. Infinitely many solutions</h3>

This happens when the lines are basically the same having the same slope and y-intercept.

So, let's rewrite our lines in Slope-intercept form $y=mx+b$ :

$Line \ 1: \\ \\ 4x-2y = 8 \\ \\ 2y=4x-8 \\ \\ y=\frac{4}{2}x-\frac{8}{2} \\ \\ y=2x-4 \\ \\ \\ Line \ 2: \\ \\ 2x + y = 2 \\ \\ y=-2x+2$

As you can see, they have different slopes and y-intercepts. So they will intersect at a single point which is the solution of the system. By using graphing tool we get that this point is (1.5, -1) as indicated in the figure below.

<h2>Learn more:</h2>

Parametric equations: brainly.com/question/10022596

#LearnWithBrainly

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Answer:

108ft

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee

prohojiy [21]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

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And replacing we got:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want this probability:

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And using the complement rule we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

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3 years ago

Two lines, A and B, are represented by equations given below: Line A: y = x − 2 Line B: y = 3x + 4 Which of the following shows

gavmur [86]

The solution to the system of equations is (-3, -5) because the point satisfies both equations

<h3>What is a linear function?</h3>

A linear function is in the form:

y = mx + b

Where m is the slope (rate of change) and b is the y intercept

Line A:

y = x − 2 (1)

Line B:

y = 3x + 4 (2)

Solving both equations simultaneously gives:

x = -3, y = -5

The solution to the system of equations is (-3, -5) because the point satisfies both equations

Find out more on linear function at: brainly.com/question/4025726

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2 years ago

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers