Answer:
Whether writing a philosophical essay or a policy paper, Douglass' voice was direct and engaging. It's not uncommon for him to use an unexpected tone, or the tone of someone who has actually survived something catastrophic. The intellectual and genuine struggle of Douglass is to free himself from oppression.
In some cases, Fredrick employs harsh language to explain what happened. A passionate and irate tone is added to his voice in an attempt to mask it. He does a good job of maintaining a calm and composed demeanor throughout the introduction. Whatever the case may be, he does occasionally employ strong and passionate language. This effectively causes the pursuer to feel enraged and annoyed by oppression, just as he requires them to.
Explanation:
it's true for example: dye die; dual duel. These words are <u>HOMONYMS</u>
I believe the correct answers are:
- an Indo-European language of Germanic origin: this is definitely true as old English (as well as modern English) belongs to the Germanic group of languages, along with Scandinavian languages (Swedish, Norwegian, Danish, Icelandic), German, Yiddish, etc. And all of them are Indo-European languages
- depended on inflections to indicate gender: this statement is also true. Old English, also known as Anglo-Saxon English, used different suffixes to denote the gender of a noun. So if a noun was female, it would have a different suffix from that of male/neuter gender. This has mostly disappeared from modern English.
- depended on inflections to indicate grammatical form: this statement is also true. Old English used different suffixes to denote the form of a word, such as the tense, or possessive form, etc. This is something that modern English has kept as well, and you can see it in -ed suffix for past tense, or 's used for possessive form.
These three options are definitely correct, whereas 'similar to modern English' is definitely incorrect because they almost look nothing alike. I'm not sure about the mixture of many languages though - it had many dialects, but ultimately it was one Germanic/Viking language, so I don't think other languages influenced it a lot at the time - that came later with Middle English.
~Answer~
To show why something
~Explanation~
In the problem it states: Cause and Effect, which is likely to show why something happened and the effects of why it happened.